BIOD 102 FINAL EXAM, BIOD102
FINAL EXAM, BIO 2 FINAL EXAM
STUDY QUESTIONS, PORTAGE BIO2
FINAL EXAM, BIO 2 FINAL EXAM
STUDY QUESTIONS, MODULE 6 BIO 2,
MODULE 5 BIO 2, MODULE 4 BIO 2,
MODULE 3 BIO 2, MODULE 2 BIO 2
QUESTION WITH COMPLETE
ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2026-
2027.
Silent Substitution - ANSWERSOccur becuase of the redundancy of the genetic code
Point Mutation - ANSWERSOccur when a single nucleotide is changed within a gene
Frameshift Mutation - ANSWERSCan have three different outcomes arising from the
alteration of the triplet-codon reading frame.
Insertion Mutation - ANSWERSOccurs from the gain of nucleotides within a gene
Endocrine Signaling - ANSWERSLong-term signaling that regulates blood pressure,
blood volume and energy metabolism.
Autocrine Signaling - ANSWERSLocal signaling where the ligand is not transported
trough the blood but instead diffuses across a short distance.
Synaptic Signaling - ANSWERSLocal signaling where the ligand diffuses across a
synapse
Pheromone Signaling - ANSWERSLigands are released into the external environment
to mark territory or attract mates.
Falling Phase - ANSWERSK+ ions flow out of the cell, making the cell more negative
Depolarization - ANSWERSNa+ ions flow out of the cell,
,Rising Phase - ANSWERSPositive feedback causes opening of more Na+ channels
What is homeostasis - ANSWERSThe tendency to maintain an equilibrium or set point,
among interdependent physiological processes despite environmental changes.
Absorption - ANSWERSThe process of a drug moving from its site of administration to
the target area, crossing one or more body membranes
Active Surveillance - ANSWERSHealth officers or other public health officials execute
procedures to gather pertinent health data. Advantage - greater level of accuracy.
Disadvantage - more man power, more expensive.
Passive Surveillance - ANSWERSTechniques in which data reporting is mandated or
requested. Existing data is identified , counted and reported. Advantage - easy and
inexpensive. Disadvantage - providers may not submit detailed reports.
Which sequence immediately stops transcription - ANSWERSPolyadenylation
Sequence
Excitatory neurotransmitters ____ the electrical threshold by increasing electrical
excitability of ____ cells, allowing action potentials to be propagated more quickly. -
ANSWERSDecrease, post-synaptic
What are the two main ways neurotransmitters are cleared from the synapse? -
ANSWERSInactivating enzymes and reuptake via neurotransmitter transport channels.
Chemoreceptors - ANSWERSRestore homeostasis through negative feedback, but they
do not communicate with the hypothalamus as they are reflexive.
Post-Marketing Phase - ANSWERSPhase of drug development process covers
expansive groups of people with diverse medical backgrounds as adverse effects may
not appear until larger numbers of people begin taking a drug.
Preclinical Phase - ANSWERSExhaustive laboratory work, 1-3 years long. Cells are
grown in culture and the candidate drug is tested to look for potential harms. Animal
testing would occur now.
Clinical Investigation Phase - ANSWERS2-10 years long. Pharmacologists gather data ,
important in identifying adverse SE and possibility that developing drug may worsen
other conditions. Clinical trials occur during this phase.
New Drug Approval Phase - ANSWERSFormal review process conducted by a
specialized branch of the FDA. 2 months - 7 years. Clinical data is examined. If the drug
has reasonable benefit it can continue to post marketing studies.
,Epidemiological Triad - ANSWERSFocuses on interactions among host, agent, and
environment.
Initiation stage of translation - ANSWERSInvolves binding of the small ribosomal skin it
with mature mRNA
Termination Phase of Translation - ANSWERSBroken down into 3 steps - binding of a
releasing factor, liberation of the completed polypeptide chain, and disassembly of the
translation initiation complex.
Elongation Phase of Translation - ANSWERSMoves 5' to 3'
Endocrine Glands - ANSWERSDuctless structures that secrete hormones directly into
the surrounding extracellular fluid or bloodstream
Which type of muscle is under voluntary control? - ANSWERSSkeletal
Response - ANSWERSThe physiological adjustment that a system makes to return a
Callie to its set point range.
Sensor - ANSWERSThe anatomical or physiological machinery thta detects the
stimulus.
Stimulus - ANSWERSA fluctuation above or below normal set point ranges
Set point - ANSWERSA range of acceptable values that is determined by genetics
Schedule I Drug - ANSWERSHighest abuse potential. Heroin, marijuana.
Schedule II Drug - ANSWERSHigh abuse potential. Methamphetamine, morphine.
Schedule III Drug - ANSWERSModerate abuse potential. Anabolic steroids,
hydrocodone.
Schedule IV Drug - ANSWERSLow abuse potential. Valium, Xanax.
Schedule V Drug - ANSWERSLowest abuse potential. OTC.
What is the goal of public health? - ANSWERSIdentify risk factors and intervene to
reduce morbidity and mortality within a population.
Regulation of pH in the small intestine is run by what type of feedback mechanism? -
ANSWERSNegative Feedback
Cardiac Output - ANSWERSHR x SV
, Describe heat- generating mechanism used by the body when a drop in body
temperature is detected. - ANSWERSWhen core temperature drops, skeletal muscles
are stimulated to move to produce the friction and heat through shivering. Shivering is a
mechanism that produces and conserves heat.
Category A - ANSWERSHuman studies have not shown a risk to mother or fetus
CAtegory B - ANSWERSAnimal studies have not shown a risk or if they have shown a
risk to animals, himan studies have not validated risk.
Category C - ANSWERSAnimal studies have shown risk but there is little or no known
data for human studies
Category D - ANSWERSUse may cause harm to a fetus but it may provide a necessary
benefit to the mother.
Category X - ANSWERSStudies suggest significant risk to woman and/or fetus
Which hormone produces the sensation of hunger? How does it work to produce the
feeling? - ANSWERSGrehlin is a hormone secreted by the cells of the stomach that
stimulates the neurons of the hypothalamus to stimulate feelings of hunger.
Which phase of the clinical trial is not randomized or blocked? - ANSWERSPhase IV
Cohort Studies - ANSWERSInvestigate multiple outcomes in relation to a single
exposure
Cross-sectional studies - ANSWERSSometimes called prevalence studies
Case - series - ANSWERSIncludes only a small group of patients with a similar
diagnosis.
Case-control - ANSWERSExamine multiple exposures in relation to a single disease
What enzymes add nucleotides to the 3' end of an existing DNA chain via dehydration
reactions? - ANSWERSDNA Polymerase
____ is the number of new cases that occur in a specific time period among a
population that is at risk for developing the condition or illness. ____ is defined as the
number of persons, present within a defined population at a specific time ,who have a
particular condition. - ANSWERSIncidence, prevalence
Which enzyme cuts DNA? - ANSWERSNuclease
Compare and contrast negative and positive feedback loops. - ANSWERSNegative
feedback is a regulatory mechanism that results in a decrease in function. In contrast to
FINAL EXAM, BIO 2 FINAL EXAM
STUDY QUESTIONS, PORTAGE BIO2
FINAL EXAM, BIO 2 FINAL EXAM
STUDY QUESTIONS, MODULE 6 BIO 2,
MODULE 5 BIO 2, MODULE 4 BIO 2,
MODULE 3 BIO 2, MODULE 2 BIO 2
QUESTION WITH COMPLETE
ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2026-
2027.
Silent Substitution - ANSWERSOccur becuase of the redundancy of the genetic code
Point Mutation - ANSWERSOccur when a single nucleotide is changed within a gene
Frameshift Mutation - ANSWERSCan have three different outcomes arising from the
alteration of the triplet-codon reading frame.
Insertion Mutation - ANSWERSOccurs from the gain of nucleotides within a gene
Endocrine Signaling - ANSWERSLong-term signaling that regulates blood pressure,
blood volume and energy metabolism.
Autocrine Signaling - ANSWERSLocal signaling where the ligand is not transported
trough the blood but instead diffuses across a short distance.
Synaptic Signaling - ANSWERSLocal signaling where the ligand diffuses across a
synapse
Pheromone Signaling - ANSWERSLigands are released into the external environment
to mark territory or attract mates.
Falling Phase - ANSWERSK+ ions flow out of the cell, making the cell more negative
Depolarization - ANSWERSNa+ ions flow out of the cell,
,Rising Phase - ANSWERSPositive feedback causes opening of more Na+ channels
What is homeostasis - ANSWERSThe tendency to maintain an equilibrium or set point,
among interdependent physiological processes despite environmental changes.
Absorption - ANSWERSThe process of a drug moving from its site of administration to
the target area, crossing one or more body membranes
Active Surveillance - ANSWERSHealth officers or other public health officials execute
procedures to gather pertinent health data. Advantage - greater level of accuracy.
Disadvantage - more man power, more expensive.
Passive Surveillance - ANSWERSTechniques in which data reporting is mandated or
requested. Existing data is identified , counted and reported. Advantage - easy and
inexpensive. Disadvantage - providers may not submit detailed reports.
Which sequence immediately stops transcription - ANSWERSPolyadenylation
Sequence
Excitatory neurotransmitters ____ the electrical threshold by increasing electrical
excitability of ____ cells, allowing action potentials to be propagated more quickly. -
ANSWERSDecrease, post-synaptic
What are the two main ways neurotransmitters are cleared from the synapse? -
ANSWERSInactivating enzymes and reuptake via neurotransmitter transport channels.
Chemoreceptors - ANSWERSRestore homeostasis through negative feedback, but they
do not communicate with the hypothalamus as they are reflexive.
Post-Marketing Phase - ANSWERSPhase of drug development process covers
expansive groups of people with diverse medical backgrounds as adverse effects may
not appear until larger numbers of people begin taking a drug.
Preclinical Phase - ANSWERSExhaustive laboratory work, 1-3 years long. Cells are
grown in culture and the candidate drug is tested to look for potential harms. Animal
testing would occur now.
Clinical Investigation Phase - ANSWERS2-10 years long. Pharmacologists gather data ,
important in identifying adverse SE and possibility that developing drug may worsen
other conditions. Clinical trials occur during this phase.
New Drug Approval Phase - ANSWERSFormal review process conducted by a
specialized branch of the FDA. 2 months - 7 years. Clinical data is examined. If the drug
has reasonable benefit it can continue to post marketing studies.
,Epidemiological Triad - ANSWERSFocuses on interactions among host, agent, and
environment.
Initiation stage of translation - ANSWERSInvolves binding of the small ribosomal skin it
with mature mRNA
Termination Phase of Translation - ANSWERSBroken down into 3 steps - binding of a
releasing factor, liberation of the completed polypeptide chain, and disassembly of the
translation initiation complex.
Elongation Phase of Translation - ANSWERSMoves 5' to 3'
Endocrine Glands - ANSWERSDuctless structures that secrete hormones directly into
the surrounding extracellular fluid or bloodstream
Which type of muscle is under voluntary control? - ANSWERSSkeletal
Response - ANSWERSThe physiological adjustment that a system makes to return a
Callie to its set point range.
Sensor - ANSWERSThe anatomical or physiological machinery thta detects the
stimulus.
Stimulus - ANSWERSA fluctuation above or below normal set point ranges
Set point - ANSWERSA range of acceptable values that is determined by genetics
Schedule I Drug - ANSWERSHighest abuse potential. Heroin, marijuana.
Schedule II Drug - ANSWERSHigh abuse potential. Methamphetamine, morphine.
Schedule III Drug - ANSWERSModerate abuse potential. Anabolic steroids,
hydrocodone.
Schedule IV Drug - ANSWERSLow abuse potential. Valium, Xanax.
Schedule V Drug - ANSWERSLowest abuse potential. OTC.
What is the goal of public health? - ANSWERSIdentify risk factors and intervene to
reduce morbidity and mortality within a population.
Regulation of pH in the small intestine is run by what type of feedback mechanism? -
ANSWERSNegative Feedback
Cardiac Output - ANSWERSHR x SV
, Describe heat- generating mechanism used by the body when a drop in body
temperature is detected. - ANSWERSWhen core temperature drops, skeletal muscles
are stimulated to move to produce the friction and heat through shivering. Shivering is a
mechanism that produces and conserves heat.
Category A - ANSWERSHuman studies have not shown a risk to mother or fetus
CAtegory B - ANSWERSAnimal studies have not shown a risk or if they have shown a
risk to animals, himan studies have not validated risk.
Category C - ANSWERSAnimal studies have shown risk but there is little or no known
data for human studies
Category D - ANSWERSUse may cause harm to a fetus but it may provide a necessary
benefit to the mother.
Category X - ANSWERSStudies suggest significant risk to woman and/or fetus
Which hormone produces the sensation of hunger? How does it work to produce the
feeling? - ANSWERSGrehlin is a hormone secreted by the cells of the stomach that
stimulates the neurons of the hypothalamus to stimulate feelings of hunger.
Which phase of the clinical trial is not randomized or blocked? - ANSWERSPhase IV
Cohort Studies - ANSWERSInvestigate multiple outcomes in relation to a single
exposure
Cross-sectional studies - ANSWERSSometimes called prevalence studies
Case - series - ANSWERSIncludes only a small group of patients with a similar
diagnosis.
Case-control - ANSWERSExamine multiple exposures in relation to a single disease
What enzymes add nucleotides to the 3' end of an existing DNA chain via dehydration
reactions? - ANSWERSDNA Polymerase
____ is the number of new cases that occur in a specific time period among a
population that is at risk for developing the condition or illness. ____ is defined as the
number of persons, present within a defined population at a specific time ,who have a
particular condition. - ANSWERSIncidence, prevalence
Which enzyme cuts DNA? - ANSWERSNuclease
Compare and contrast negative and positive feedback loops. - ANSWERSNegative
feedback is a regulatory mechanism that results in a decrease in function. In contrast to
