1|Page
ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
Form A & B (2026) | Complete Verified
Questions & Correct Answers | NGN
Next Gen NCLEX | Grade A
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing (NCLEX-RN/RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor) – Comprehensive
exam preparation covering medical-surgical, mental health, maternity, pediatrics,
pharmacology, and professional practice.
Source: ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Form A&B Exam Preparation (2026)
Format: Multiple-choice questions with single best answer format, extracted verbatim.
Each item includes the question stem, answer options, Correct Answer, and a concise,
numbered-point rationale.
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a
new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client
statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client
understands the teaching?
A. "I should report a change in the color of my stools."
B. "I can take acetaminophen to treat a headache."
C. "I will take a calcium supplement while taking this medication."
D. "I will return in a month to have my blood tested."
Correct Answer: A. "I should report a change in the color of my stools."
Rationale:
1. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding.
2. Red, black, or tarry stools are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding.
3. Reporting this finding promptly is a critical client safety action to
prevent serious complications.
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4. Options B, C, and D indicate a need for further teaching, as
acetaminophen can increase bleeding risk, calcium supplements are
not specifically indicated, and blood monitoring (INR) is initially
more frequent than monthly.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has antisocial personality disorder.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Lack of remorse
B. Sensitivity to rejection
C. Extreme mood swings
D. Self-mutilating behavior
Correct Answer: A. Lack of remorse
Rationale:
1. A core feature of antisocial personality disorder is a pervasive
disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
2. This includes a lack of empathy, guilt, or remorse for harmful actions.
3. Sensitivity to rejection is more associated with avoidant or
narcissistic personality disorders.
4. Extreme mood swings are characteristic of bipolar disorder.
5. Self-mutilating behavior is commonly seen in borderline personality
disorder.
3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client in the PACU following
general anesthesia. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hr
B. Systolic blood pressure 12 mm Hg lower than the preoperative level
C. Audible stridor
D. Normal sinus rhythm with an occasional premature ventricular
contraction
Correct Answer: C. Audible stridor
Rationale:
1. Audible stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound indicating upper
airway obstruction.
2. This is a potential emergency requiring immediate intervention to
secure the airway.
3. Urine output of 30 mL/hr (120 mL/4 hr) is within acceptable limits.
, 3|Page
4. A 12 mm Hg drop in systolic pressure is not significant enough to
report immediately without other symptoms.
5. Occasional PVCs are common post-anesthesia, especially in older
adults, and require monitoring but not immediate reporting.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has skeletal traction for a femur
fracture. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as
the priority?
A. Muscle spasms of the affected extremity
B. A pain rating of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
C. Upper chest petechiae
D. Ecchymosis over the fractured area
Correct Answer: C. Upper chest petechiae
Rationale:
1. Upper chest petechiae are a classic sign of fat embolism syndrome
(FES), a life-threatening complication of long bone fractures.
2. FES occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge in the
pulmonary or cerebral vasculature.
3. This finding is the priority as it indicates potential respiratory and
neurological compromise.
4. Muscle spasms, moderate pain, and localized bruising are expected
findings that require intervention but are not immediately life-
threatening.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative, is receiving
PCA for pain control, and requires a blood pressure check in 10 min.
Which of the following staff members should the nurse assign to
collect this information?
A. An RN who is monitoring a client who started receiving a blood
transfusion 5 min ago
B. An assistive personnel (AP) who just began performing a bed bath
C. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) who is reinforcing discharge
instructions with a client
D. An assistive personnel (AP) who is assisting a client to return to bed
Correct Answer: D. An assistive personnel (AP) who is assisting a client to
return to bed
Rationale:
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1. Taking a blood pressure is within the scope of practice for an AP.
2. The AP in option D is finishing a task and will be available in the
specified timeframe.
3. The RN must remain with the client receiving a blood transfusion for
the first 15-30 minutes to monitor for acute reactions.
4. Interrupting a bed bath (Option B) is disruptive to client care and
dignity.
5. Interrupting discharge teaching (Option C) is inefficient and disrupts
an LPN performing a higher-level task.
6. A charge nurse is planning an educational session for staff nurses
about working with parents whose terminally ill children are
candidates for donating their organs. Which of the following
information should the nurse plan to include?
A. Choosing to donate organs can delay the timing of the child's funeral.
B. The family can have the child in an open casket without fearing that the
organ donation might disfigure the child's body.
C. The family should understand that an autopsy is mandatory prior to
organ donation.
D. The nurse should introduce the option of organ donation to the parents
when first discussing the child's impending death.
Correct Answer: B. The family can have the child in an open casket without
fearing that the organ donation might disfigure the child's body.
Rationale:
1. Organ donation is performed with great care and respect, using
surgical techniques that do not preclude an open-casket viewing.
2. This information can provide significant comfort to grieving families
considering donation.
3. Organ donation does not typically delay funeral arrangements.
4. An autopsy is not a prerequisite for organ donation.
5. Organ donation should be discussed separately from news of
impending death to allow parents time to process the initial
information.
7. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a
total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include?
ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
Form A & B (2026) | Complete Verified
Questions & Correct Answers | NGN
Next Gen NCLEX | Grade A
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing (NCLEX-RN/RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor) – Comprehensive
exam preparation covering medical-surgical, mental health, maternity, pediatrics,
pharmacology, and professional practice.
Source: ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Form A&B Exam Preparation (2026)
Format: Multiple-choice questions with single best answer format, extracted verbatim.
Each item includes the question stem, answer options, Correct Answer, and a concise,
numbered-point rationale.
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a
new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client
statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client
understands the teaching?
A. "I should report a change in the color of my stools."
B. "I can take acetaminophen to treat a headache."
C. "I will take a calcium supplement while taking this medication."
D. "I will return in a month to have my blood tested."
Correct Answer: A. "I should report a change in the color of my stools."
Rationale:
1. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding.
2. Red, black, or tarry stools are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding.
3. Reporting this finding promptly is a critical client safety action to
prevent serious complications.
, 2|Page
4. Options B, C, and D indicate a need for further teaching, as
acetaminophen can increase bleeding risk, calcium supplements are
not specifically indicated, and blood monitoring (INR) is initially
more frequent than monthly.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has antisocial personality disorder.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
A. Lack of remorse
B. Sensitivity to rejection
C. Extreme mood swings
D. Self-mutilating behavior
Correct Answer: A. Lack of remorse
Rationale:
1. A core feature of antisocial personality disorder is a pervasive
disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
2. This includes a lack of empathy, guilt, or remorse for harmful actions.
3. Sensitivity to rejection is more associated with avoidant or
narcissistic personality disorders.
4. Extreme mood swings are characteristic of bipolar disorder.
5. Self-mutilating behavior is commonly seen in borderline personality
disorder.
3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client in the PACU following
general anesthesia. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider?
A. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hr
B. Systolic blood pressure 12 mm Hg lower than the preoperative level
C. Audible stridor
D. Normal sinus rhythm with an occasional premature ventricular
contraction
Correct Answer: C. Audible stridor
Rationale:
1. Audible stridor is a high-pitched, crowing sound indicating upper
airway obstruction.
2. This is a potential emergency requiring immediate intervention to
secure the airway.
3. Urine output of 30 mL/hr (120 mL/4 hr) is within acceptable limits.
, 3|Page
4. A 12 mm Hg drop in systolic pressure is not significant enough to
report immediately without other symptoms.
5. Occasional PVCs are common post-anesthesia, especially in older
adults, and require monitoring but not immediate reporting.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has skeletal traction for a femur
fracture. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as
the priority?
A. Muscle spasms of the affected extremity
B. A pain rating of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
C. Upper chest petechiae
D. Ecchymosis over the fractured area
Correct Answer: C. Upper chest petechiae
Rationale:
1. Upper chest petechiae are a classic sign of fat embolism syndrome
(FES), a life-threatening complication of long bone fractures.
2. FES occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and lodge in the
pulmonary or cerebral vasculature.
3. This finding is the priority as it indicates potential respiratory and
neurological compromise.
4. Muscle spasms, moderate pain, and localized bruising are expected
findings that require intervention but are not immediately life-
threatening.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postoperative, is receiving
PCA for pain control, and requires a blood pressure check in 10 min.
Which of the following staff members should the nurse assign to
collect this information?
A. An RN who is monitoring a client who started receiving a blood
transfusion 5 min ago
B. An assistive personnel (AP) who just began performing a bed bath
C. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) who is reinforcing discharge
instructions with a client
D. An assistive personnel (AP) who is assisting a client to return to bed
Correct Answer: D. An assistive personnel (AP) who is assisting a client to
return to bed
Rationale:
, 4|Page
1. Taking a blood pressure is within the scope of practice for an AP.
2. The AP in option D is finishing a task and will be available in the
specified timeframe.
3. The RN must remain with the client receiving a blood transfusion for
the first 15-30 minutes to monitor for acute reactions.
4. Interrupting a bed bath (Option B) is disruptive to client care and
dignity.
5. Interrupting discharge teaching (Option C) is inefficient and disrupts
an LPN performing a higher-level task.
6. A charge nurse is planning an educational session for staff nurses
about working with parents whose terminally ill children are
candidates for donating their organs. Which of the following
information should the nurse plan to include?
A. Choosing to donate organs can delay the timing of the child's funeral.
B. The family can have the child in an open casket without fearing that the
organ donation might disfigure the child's body.
C. The family should understand that an autopsy is mandatory prior to
organ donation.
D. The nurse should introduce the option of organ donation to the parents
when first discussing the child's impending death.
Correct Answer: B. The family can have the child in an open casket without
fearing that the organ donation might disfigure the child's body.
Rationale:
1. Organ donation is performed with great care and respect, using
surgical techniques that do not preclude an open-casket viewing.
2. This information can provide significant comfort to grieving families
considering donation.
3. Organ donation does not typically delay funeral arrangements.
4. An autopsy is not a prerequisite for organ donation.
5. Organ donation should be discussed separately from news of
impending death to allow parents time to process the initial
information.
7. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a
total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse include?
