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HESI LPN Entrance Exam (2026/2027)
Actual Exam Questions & Verified
Detailed Answers | Grade A
Guaranteed Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing, covering maternity, pediatrics, pharmacology, medical-surgical care,
mental health, and foundational concepts.
Source: HESI LPN-Entrance Exam preparation document.
Format: Multiple-choice questions with four answer options (A, B, C, D) or select-all-
that-apply format; includes rationales for Correct Answers.
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit
and is being treated for preterm labor. She has a prescription for
brethine (Terbutaline) 250 micrograms subcutaneously q4h. The
medication is available for injection in 1mg per ML vials. How many
mL should the nurse administer?
A. 0.025
B. 0.0025
C. 0.25
D. 25.0
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. The prescribed dose is 250 micrograms.
2. The available concentration is 1 mg/mL. Since 1 mg = 1000 mcg, the
concentration is 1000 mcg/mL.
, 2|Page
3. To find the volume: Dose (mcg) / Concentration (mcg/mL) = Volume
(mL).
4. 250 mcg / 1000 mcg/mL = 0.25 mL.
5. The nurse should administer 0.25 mL.
2. A client begins an antidepressant drug during the second day of
hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to
include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the
antidepressant?
A. Appetite
B. Mood
C. Withdrawal
D. Energy level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The primary goal of antidepressant therapy is to alleviate symptoms
of depression, which are primarily reflected in mood.
2. Monitoring mood provides the most direct assessment of the
medication's therapeutic effectiveness.
3. While appetite, energy, and withdrawal potential are important,
mood is the core symptom being targeted.
4. Early detection of inadequate response or worsening mood is critical
for timely intervention.
3. A client comes to the antepartum clinic and tells the nurse that she
is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is the most likely to report?
A. Decreased sexual libido
B. Amenorrhea
C. Quickening
D. Nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) is often the first subjective
sign of pregnancy that prompts a woman to seek confirmation.
2. At 6 weeks, other signs like quickening (fetal movement) are not yet
felt (typically occurs around 16-20 weeks).
, 3|Page
3. Nocturia and changes in libido may occur but are less specific and
reliable as initial indicators.
4. Amenorrhea is a classic presumptive sign of pregnancy.
4. A client complains of kidney pain. The nurse understands that the
kidneys are located where?
A. On the retroperitoneal posterior abdominal wall at the costovertebral
angle
B. Within the curve of the duodenum, posterior to the spleen
C. Lateral to the stomach in the hypochondriac region
D. Superior aspect of the bladder in right and left iliac region
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs, meaning they lie behind the
peritoneal cavity.
2. They are situated on the posterior abdominal wall, approximately at
the level of the T12 to L3 vertebrae.
3. The costovertebral angle (CVA) is the angle formed by the lower rib
and the spine; tenderness here is indicative of kidney pathology.
4. This anatomic knowledge is essential for accurate assessment and
localization of pain.
5. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve
Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative
period following a lumber Laminectomy. What information should the
nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve
conduction for severe pain
B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of
an electrical stimulus
C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. TENS units work by delivering low-voltage electrical currents
through electrodes placed on the skin.
, 4|Page
2. The electrical impulses are thought to interfere with pain signal
transmission to the brain (pain perception) and may stimulate the
release of endorphins.
3. Option B most accurately describes the theorized mechanism of
modulating pain perception at the cortical level.
4. TENS does not involve medication infusion (C) and is based on more
than simple distraction (D) or just closing "gates" at the peripheral
level (A).
6. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO
daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What
action should the nurse take?
A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin.
B. Instruct the client about the effects when given the medication.
C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack.
D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Enteric-coated aspirin is designed to dissolve in the small intestine,
not the stomach, to reduce gastric irritation.
2. If only regular aspirin is available, it can still be administered to
achieve the therapeutic antiplatelet effect.
3. Administering it with a full glass of water or food helps minimize
potential gastric upset.
4. The nurse should administer the available medication as prescribed
and then communicate with pharmacy for future doses, but not delay
the current dose unnecessarily.
7. A client has a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) 1mg for anxiety.
The medication is supplied as 0.5mg tablets. How many tablets should
the client take? (enter numeric value only.)
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale:
1. The prescribed dose is 1 mg.
2. Each tablet contains 0.5 mg.
3. Number of tablets = Desired dose / Dose per tablet.
4. 1 mg / 0.5 mg per tablet = 2 tablets.
HESI LPN Entrance Exam (2026/2027)
Actual Exam Questions & Verified
Detailed Answers | Grade A
Guaranteed Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing, covering maternity, pediatrics, pharmacology, medical-surgical care,
mental health, and foundational concepts.
Source: HESI LPN-Entrance Exam preparation document.
Format: Multiple-choice questions with four answer options (A, B, C, D) or select-all-
that-apply format; includes rationales for Correct Answers.
1. A client at 28 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit
and is being treated for preterm labor. She has a prescription for
brethine (Terbutaline) 250 micrograms subcutaneously q4h. The
medication is available for injection in 1mg per ML vials. How many
mL should the nurse administer?
A. 0.025
B. 0.0025
C. 0.25
D. 25.0
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. The prescribed dose is 250 micrograms.
2. The available concentration is 1 mg/mL. Since 1 mg = 1000 mcg, the
concentration is 1000 mcg/mL.
, 2|Page
3. To find the volume: Dose (mcg) / Concentration (mcg/mL) = Volume
(mL).
4. 250 mcg / 1000 mcg/mL = 0.25 mL.
5. The nurse should administer 0.25 mL.
2. A client begins an antidepressant drug during the second day of
hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to
include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the
antidepressant?
A. Appetite
B. Mood
C. Withdrawal
D. Energy level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The primary goal of antidepressant therapy is to alleviate symptoms
of depression, which are primarily reflected in mood.
2. Monitoring mood provides the most direct assessment of the
medication's therapeutic effectiveness.
3. While appetite, energy, and withdrawal potential are important,
mood is the core symptom being targeted.
4. Early detection of inadequate response or worsening mood is critical
for timely intervention.
3. A client comes to the antepartum clinic and tells the nurse that she
is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is the most likely to report?
A. Decreased sexual libido
B. Amenorrhea
C. Quickening
D. Nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) is often the first subjective
sign of pregnancy that prompts a woman to seek confirmation.
2. At 6 weeks, other signs like quickening (fetal movement) are not yet
felt (typically occurs around 16-20 weeks).
, 3|Page
3. Nocturia and changes in libido may occur but are less specific and
reliable as initial indicators.
4. Amenorrhea is a classic presumptive sign of pregnancy.
4. A client complains of kidney pain. The nurse understands that the
kidneys are located where?
A. On the retroperitoneal posterior abdominal wall at the costovertebral
angle
B. Within the curve of the duodenum, posterior to the spleen
C. Lateral to the stomach in the hypochondriac region
D. Superior aspect of the bladder in right and left iliac region
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs, meaning they lie behind the
peritoneal cavity.
2. They are situated on the posterior abdominal wall, approximately at
the level of the T12 to L3 vertebrae.
3. The costovertebral angle (CVA) is the angle formed by the lower rib
and the spine; tenderness here is indicative of kidney pathology.
4. This anatomic knowledge is essential for accurate assessment and
localization of pain.
5. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve
Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative
period following a lumber Laminectomy. What information should the
nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve
conduction for severe pain
B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of
an electrical stimulus
C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. TENS units work by delivering low-voltage electrical currents
through electrodes placed on the skin.
, 4|Page
2. The electrical impulses are thought to interfere with pain signal
transmission to the brain (pain perception) and may stimulate the
release of endorphins.
3. Option B most accurately describes the theorized mechanism of
modulating pain perception at the cortical level.
4. TENS does not involve medication infusion (C) and is based on more
than simple distraction (D) or just closing "gates" at the peripheral
level (A).
6. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO
daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What
action should the nurse take?
A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin.
B. Instruct the client about the effects when given the medication.
C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack.
D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
1. Enteric-coated aspirin is designed to dissolve in the small intestine,
not the stomach, to reduce gastric irritation.
2. If only regular aspirin is available, it can still be administered to
achieve the therapeutic antiplatelet effect.
3. Administering it with a full glass of water or food helps minimize
potential gastric upset.
4. The nurse should administer the available medication as prescribed
and then communicate with pharmacy for future doses, but not delay
the current dose unnecessarily.
7. A client has a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) 1mg for anxiety.
The medication is supplied as 0.5mg tablets. How many tablets should
the client take? (enter numeric value only.)
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale:
1. The prescribed dose is 1 mg.
2. Each tablet contains 0.5 mg.
3. Number of tablets = Desired dose / Dose per tablet.
4. 1 mg / 0.5 mg per tablet = 2 tablets.
