NURS 6050 WALDEN UNIVERSITY
AGENDA COMPARISON GRID PART 1
EXAM SCRIPT 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
⩥ The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-
thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What
intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of
infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns. Answer: B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective
intervention for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A
reverses the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma but is
not related to decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms.
Options C and D are recommended by various burn centers as possible
ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a proven technique
to prevent infection.
⩥ The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among
clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which
laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein
malnutrition?
,A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause
significantly lowered serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the
liver only when adequate amounts of amino acids (from protein
breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-life, so acute protein
loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a serum
protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute
protein deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein
malnutrition.
⩥ In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the
operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions
about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the
client has questions about the surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before
the anesthesia is administered. Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit
is not signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to
the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the
nurse can witness an operative permit, the procedure must first be
,explained by the health care provider or surgeon, including answering
the client's questions. The client's questions should be addressed before
the permit is signed.
⩥ The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in
a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur
during surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months Answer: B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can
pose a threat for the development of surgical complications. The health
care provider should be informed that the client is taking these drugs.
Although clients who take birth control pills may be more susceptible to
the development of thrombi, such problems usually occur
postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less of a surgical risk
than with option B.
⩥ When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is
best for the nurse to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of
the bed and assist the client in moving to the chair.
, B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's
knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward,
underneath the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's
neck, and gently move the client to the chair. Answer: B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and
affords the nurse a wide base of support while stabilizing the client's
knees when assisting to a standing position. The chair should be placed
at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the
head of the bed. Clients should never be lifted under the axillae; this
could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client should be
instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her
arms around the nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's
neck and back and increases the risk for a fall.
⩥ Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to
an adult client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back. Answer: A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate
administration of ear drops. The dropper should be held 1 cm (½ inch)
above the ear canal (C). A cotton ball should be placed in the outermost
AGENDA COMPARISON GRID PART 1
EXAM SCRIPT 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+
⩥ The nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-
thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What
intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of
infection?
A. Administration of plasma expanders
B. Use of careful handwashing technique
C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns. Answer: B
Rationale: Careful handwashing technique is the single most effective
intervention for the prevention of contamination to all clients. Option A
reverses the hypovolemia that initially accompanies burn trauma but is
not related to decreasing the proliferation of infective organisms.
Options C and D are recommended by various burn centers as possible
ways to reduce the chance of infection. Option B is a proven technique
to prevent infection.
⩥ The nurse is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among
clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which
laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein
malnutrition?
,A. Low serum albumin level
B. Low serum transferrin level
C. High hemoglobin level
D. High cholesterol level Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency is required to cause
significantly lowered serum albumin levels. Albumin is made by the
liver only when adequate amounts of amino acids (from protein
breakdown) are available. Albumin has a long half-life, so acute protein
loss does not significantly alter serum levels. Option B is a serum
protein with a half-life of only 8 to 10 days, so it will drop with an acute
protein deficiency. Options C and D are not clinical measures of protein
malnutrition.
⩥ In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the
operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions
about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Witness the client's signature to the permit.
B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the
client has questions about the surgery.
D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before
the anesthesia is administered. Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon should be informed immediately that the permit
is not signed. It is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure to
the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. Although the
nurse can witness an operative permit, the procedure must first be
,explained by the health care provider or surgeon, including answering
the client's questions. The client's questions should be addressed before
the permit is signed.
⩥ The nurse is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in
a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur
during surgery?
A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months Answer: B
Rationale:
Anticoagulants increase the risk for bleeding during surgery, which can
pose a threat for the development of surgical complications. The health
care provider should be informed that the client is taking these drugs.
Although clients who take birth control pills may be more susceptible to
the development of thrombi, such problems usually occur
postoperatively. A client with option C or D is at less of a surgical risk
than with option B.
⩥ When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is
best for the nurse to follow?
A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of
the bed and assist the client in moving to the chair.
, B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's
knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward,
underneath the axillae.
D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's
neck, and gently move the client to the chair. Answer: B
Rationale: Option B describes the correct positioning of the nurse and
affords the nurse a wide base of support while stabilizing the client's
knees when assisting to a standing position. The chair should be placed
at a 45-degree angle to the bed, with the back of the chair toward the
head of the bed. Clients should never be lifted under the axillae; this
could damage nerves and strain the nurse's back. The client should be
instructed to use the arms of the chair and should never place his or her
arms around the nurse's neck; this places undue stress on the nurse's
neck and back and increases the risk for a fall.
⩥ Which step(s) should the nurse take when administering ear drops to
an adult client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
B. Pull the auricle upward and outward.
C. Hold the dropper 6 cm above the ear canal.
D. Place a cotton ball into the inner canal.
E. Pull the auricle down and back. Answer: A, B
Rationale: The correct answers (A and B) are the appropriate
administration of ear drops. The dropper should be held 1 cm (½ inch)
above the ear canal (C). A cotton ball should be placed in the outermost
