NAB (National Association of Long Term Care Administrator
Boards) examination | Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A
Question 1
In the field of gerontology, how is the "Young-Old" category of residents specifically defined by
age?
A) 55 to 64 years old
B) 60 to 70 years old
C) 65 to 74 years old
D) 70 to 80 years old
E) 75 to 84 years old
Correct Answer: C) 65 to 74 years old
Rationale: Gerontologists categorize the elderly into three distinct subgroups to better
understand developmental and health needs. The "young-old" are those aged 65 to 74, who
are often still relatively active and healthy compared to the older cohorts.
Question 2
According to standard gerontological classifications, a resident falling into the "Old-Old"
category is defined as being within which age range?
A) 65 to 74 years old
B) 70 to 79 years old
C) 75 to 84 years old
D) 80 to 89 years old
E) 85 to 95 years old
Correct Answer: C) 75 to 84 years old
Rationale: The "old-old" category (75-84) typically represents a transitional period where
physical and cognitive impairments may become more prevalent, requiring increased
medical and social support compared to the young-old.
Question 3
Which age group is classified by gerontologists as the "Oldest-Old"?
A) 75 years and older
B) 80 years and older
C) 85 years and older
D) 90 years and older
E) 100 years and older
Correct Answer: C) Over 85 + years old
Rationale: The "oldest-old" are defined as those 85 and over. This is the fastest-growing
segment of the elderly population and represents the group most likely to require skilled
nursing care or long-term institutional support due to high rates of frailty and chronic
illness.
, 2
Question 4
Federal regulations regarding dietary services state that the morning meal must be served within
how many hours of the previous evening's meal?
A) 12 hours
B) 14 hours
C) 16 hours
D) 18 hours
E) 24 hours
Correct Answer: B) 14 Hours, if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident
approves 16 hours may elapse
Rationale: To maintain nutritional status and prevent long periods of fasting, the time
between the evening meal and breakfast cannot exceed 14 hours. However, an extension to
16 hours is permitted if a substantial evening snack is provided and the resident
council/residents approve of the schedule.
Question 5
In a skilled nursing facility, at what bed capacity does the federal government mandate the
employment of a qualified full-time social worker?
A) More than 60 beds
B) More than 80 beds
C) More than 100 beds
D) More than 120 beds
E) More than 150 beds
Correct Answer: D) 120 Beds
Rationale: Facilities with more than 120 beds are required by federal law to employ a full-
time social worker to manage the psychosocial needs of the residents. Facilities with fewer
beds must still provide social services, but they are not strictly required to have a full-time
dedicated staff member with these specific credentials.
Question 6
Which of the following sets of qualifications is required for a full-time social worker in a long-
term care facility?
A) A high school diploma and 5 years of experience
B) An Associate’s degree in nursing
C) A Bachelor’s Degree in Social Work or a related human services field and 1 year of
supervised healthcare experience
D) A Master’s Degree in Business Administration
E) A state license in counseling with no prior healthcare experience
, 3
Correct Answer: C) BS (Bachelors of Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation
counseling. Also, 1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting
Rationale: To ensure a high standard of psychosocial care, the social worker must hold at
least a Bachelor's degree in a relevant field (social work, psychology, or rehab counseling)
and possess at least one year of practical, supervised experience specifically in a healthcare
setting.
Question 7
Under what specific condition is the Director of Nursing (DON) permitted to serve as the charge
nurse in a facility?
A) Only during a natural disaster
B) When the facility has no more than 100 residents
C) When the Average Daily Census (ADC) is 60 or lower
D) Only on weekends and holidays
E) When there are no LPNs available for hire
Correct Answer: C) When ADC (Average Daily Census) is 60 or lower
Rationale: While the DON is primarily an administrative role, federal regulations allow the
DON to serve as the charge nurse if the facility is small enough (ADC of 60 or less) to
ensure that clinical oversight does not detract from necessary administrative duties.
Question 8
In the context of resident clinical monitoring, what constitutes "substantial weight loss"
according to regulatory standards?
A) 2% in one week
B) 5% in one month or 10% in six months
C) 10% in one month
D) 15% in one year
E) Any loss over 5 pounds
Correct Answer: B) 5% gain/loss in one month or a 10% gain/loss in a 6 month period
Rationale: Significant weight changes are key indicators of nutritional status or underlying
illness. Regulatory agencies define "substantial" as a 5% change within a 30-day period or
a 10% change over 180 days, triggering a mandatory clinical review and intervention.
Question 9
How frequently are physicians required to visit their residents in a skilled nursing facility during
the initial 90 days of stay?
A) Weekly
B) Once every 30 days
C) Once every 60 days
, 4
D) Once every 90 days
E) Only upon admission and discharge
Correct Answer: B) Once every 30 days for the first 90 day period, then at least every 60
days thereafter
Rationale: To ensure close monitoring of new residents or those in a post-acute phase,
physicians must visit at least once every 30 days for the first three months. After this
stabilization period, the frequency may decrease to once every 60 days.
Question 10
Following the completion of the Minimum Data Set (MDS), a comprehensive care plan must be
developed within:
A) 48 hours
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
E) 30 days
Correct Answer: B) 7 Days (Medicare or 14 days Medicaid)
Rationale: The Care Plan is the roadmap for resident care. Federal guidelines require that
the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) develop a comprehensive care plan within 7 days after the
completion of the MDS assessment to ensure that the resident's specific needs are
addressed promptly.
Question 11
If a physician writes a medication order with the abbreviation "PRN," how should the medication
be administered?
A) Immediately
B) Twice daily
C) As needed
D) Before meals
E) At bedtime
Correct Answer: C) As Needed
Rationale: "PRN" stands for the Latin "pro re nata," meaning "as the circumstance
arises." This order allows nursing staff to exercise clinical judgment to administer a
medication based on a specific symptom, such as pain or fever.
Question 12
The medical abbreviation "BID" on a prescription indicates the medication should be given:
A) Once a day
B) Twice a day
Boards) examination | Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A
Question 1
In the field of gerontology, how is the "Young-Old" category of residents specifically defined by
age?
A) 55 to 64 years old
B) 60 to 70 years old
C) 65 to 74 years old
D) 70 to 80 years old
E) 75 to 84 years old
Correct Answer: C) 65 to 74 years old
Rationale: Gerontologists categorize the elderly into three distinct subgroups to better
understand developmental and health needs. The "young-old" are those aged 65 to 74, who
are often still relatively active and healthy compared to the older cohorts.
Question 2
According to standard gerontological classifications, a resident falling into the "Old-Old"
category is defined as being within which age range?
A) 65 to 74 years old
B) 70 to 79 years old
C) 75 to 84 years old
D) 80 to 89 years old
E) 85 to 95 years old
Correct Answer: C) 75 to 84 years old
Rationale: The "old-old" category (75-84) typically represents a transitional period where
physical and cognitive impairments may become more prevalent, requiring increased
medical and social support compared to the young-old.
Question 3
Which age group is classified by gerontologists as the "Oldest-Old"?
A) 75 years and older
B) 80 years and older
C) 85 years and older
D) 90 years and older
E) 100 years and older
Correct Answer: C) Over 85 + years old
Rationale: The "oldest-old" are defined as those 85 and over. This is the fastest-growing
segment of the elderly population and represents the group most likely to require skilled
nursing care or long-term institutional support due to high rates of frailty and chronic
illness.
, 2
Question 4
Federal regulations regarding dietary services state that the morning meal must be served within
how many hours of the previous evening's meal?
A) 12 hours
B) 14 hours
C) 16 hours
D) 18 hours
E) 24 hours
Correct Answer: B) 14 Hours, if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident
approves 16 hours may elapse
Rationale: To maintain nutritional status and prevent long periods of fasting, the time
between the evening meal and breakfast cannot exceed 14 hours. However, an extension to
16 hours is permitted if a substantial evening snack is provided and the resident
council/residents approve of the schedule.
Question 5
In a skilled nursing facility, at what bed capacity does the federal government mandate the
employment of a qualified full-time social worker?
A) More than 60 beds
B) More than 80 beds
C) More than 100 beds
D) More than 120 beds
E) More than 150 beds
Correct Answer: D) 120 Beds
Rationale: Facilities with more than 120 beds are required by federal law to employ a full-
time social worker to manage the psychosocial needs of the residents. Facilities with fewer
beds must still provide social services, but they are not strictly required to have a full-time
dedicated staff member with these specific credentials.
Question 6
Which of the following sets of qualifications is required for a full-time social worker in a long-
term care facility?
A) A high school diploma and 5 years of experience
B) An Associate’s degree in nursing
C) A Bachelor’s Degree in Social Work or a related human services field and 1 year of
supervised healthcare experience
D) A Master’s Degree in Business Administration
E) A state license in counseling with no prior healthcare experience
, 3
Correct Answer: C) BS (Bachelors of Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation
counseling. Also, 1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting
Rationale: To ensure a high standard of psychosocial care, the social worker must hold at
least a Bachelor's degree in a relevant field (social work, psychology, or rehab counseling)
and possess at least one year of practical, supervised experience specifically in a healthcare
setting.
Question 7
Under what specific condition is the Director of Nursing (DON) permitted to serve as the charge
nurse in a facility?
A) Only during a natural disaster
B) When the facility has no more than 100 residents
C) When the Average Daily Census (ADC) is 60 or lower
D) Only on weekends and holidays
E) When there are no LPNs available for hire
Correct Answer: C) When ADC (Average Daily Census) is 60 or lower
Rationale: While the DON is primarily an administrative role, federal regulations allow the
DON to serve as the charge nurse if the facility is small enough (ADC of 60 or less) to
ensure that clinical oversight does not detract from necessary administrative duties.
Question 8
In the context of resident clinical monitoring, what constitutes "substantial weight loss"
according to regulatory standards?
A) 2% in one week
B) 5% in one month or 10% in six months
C) 10% in one month
D) 15% in one year
E) Any loss over 5 pounds
Correct Answer: B) 5% gain/loss in one month or a 10% gain/loss in a 6 month period
Rationale: Significant weight changes are key indicators of nutritional status or underlying
illness. Regulatory agencies define "substantial" as a 5% change within a 30-day period or
a 10% change over 180 days, triggering a mandatory clinical review and intervention.
Question 9
How frequently are physicians required to visit their residents in a skilled nursing facility during
the initial 90 days of stay?
A) Weekly
B) Once every 30 days
C) Once every 60 days
, 4
D) Once every 90 days
E) Only upon admission and discharge
Correct Answer: B) Once every 30 days for the first 90 day period, then at least every 60
days thereafter
Rationale: To ensure close monitoring of new residents or those in a post-acute phase,
physicians must visit at least once every 30 days for the first three months. After this
stabilization period, the frequency may decrease to once every 60 days.
Question 10
Following the completion of the Minimum Data Set (MDS), a comprehensive care plan must be
developed within:
A) 48 hours
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
E) 30 days
Correct Answer: B) 7 Days (Medicare or 14 days Medicaid)
Rationale: The Care Plan is the roadmap for resident care. Federal guidelines require that
the Interdisciplinary Team (IDT) develop a comprehensive care plan within 7 days after the
completion of the MDS assessment to ensure that the resident's specific needs are
addressed promptly.
Question 11
If a physician writes a medication order with the abbreviation "PRN," how should the medication
be administered?
A) Immediately
B) Twice daily
C) As needed
D) Before meals
E) At bedtime
Correct Answer: C) As Needed
Rationale: "PRN" stands for the Latin "pro re nata," meaning "as the circumstance
arises." This order allows nursing staff to exercise clinical judgment to administer a
medication based on a specific symptom, such as pain or fever.
Question 12
The medical abbreviation "BID" on a prescription indicates the medication should be given:
A) Once a day
B) Twice a day
