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EVOLVE MED SURG HESI Questions and
Answers (100% Correct Answers) Already
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The nurse is concerned about infection for a client after an
esophagogastrostomy for esophageal cancer. Which actions should the
nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
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A. Frequent oral care every 2 hours while awake.
B. Use incentive spirometer every 2 hours.
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C. Empty contents from NG tube every 8 hours.
D. Ambulate within 1 hour of return from the PACU.
E. Limit visitors until postoperative day 2. Ans: Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale:One hour post op is too soon to ambulate for this client. Visitors
help support the patient and are encouraged to visit. Oral care is
necessary as the client will be NPO. To decrease the risk of infection post
operatively, implement routine pulmonary exercises. The client will have
an NG tube in place, likely to intermittent suction, to decompress the
stomach post surgery.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated
above the knee. The nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping
method correctly when the client places the end of the bandage at
which point?
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A.Around the waist
B.At the inner aspect of the left stump
C.At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.At the left groin area Ans: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above
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the knee amputation.
A nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client with ambulation and is
concerned that the client may fall. Which area contains the older
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person's center of gravity?
A. Head and neck
B. Upper torso
C. Bilateral arms
D. Feet and legs Ans: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:Stooped posture results in the upper torso becoming the
center of gravity for older persons. The center of gravity for adults is the
hips. However, as a person grows older, a stooped posture is common
because of changes caused by osteoporosis and normal bone
degeneration. Furthermore, the knees, hips, and elbows flex. The head
and neck and feet and legs are not the center of gravity in the older
adult. Although the arms comprise a part of the upper torso, they do not
reflect the best and most complete answer.
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A client with hypertension has been receiving ramipril, 5 mg PO, daily for
2 weeks and is scheduled to receive a dose at 0900. At 0830, the client's
blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the prescribed dose at the scheduled time.
B. Hold the dose and contact the health care provider.
C. Hold the dose and recheck the blood pressure in 1 hour.
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D. Check the health care provider's prescription to clarify the dose. Ans:
Correct Answer: A
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Rationale:The client's blood pressure is within normal limits, indicating that
the ramipril, an antihypertensive, is having the desired effect and should
be administered. Options B and C would be appropriate if the client's
blood pressure was excessively low (<100 mm Hg systolic) or if the client
were exhibiting signs of hypotension such as dizziness. This prescribed
dose is within the normal dosage range, as defined by the
manufacturer; therefore, option D is not necessary
The nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with trigeminal
neuralgia (tic douloureux). Which symptoms will the nurse be looking for
in the focused assessment related to this condition? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Facial muscle spasms
B. Sudden facial pain
C. Unilateral facial weakness
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D. Difficulty in chewing
E.Tinnitus
F.Hearing difficulties Ans: Correct Answer: A,B
Rationale:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain,
similar to an electric shock, in the area innervated by one or more
branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial V). The remaining symptoms
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are not related to trigeminal neuralgia.
In caring for a client with acute diverticulitis, which assessment data
warrants an immediate nursing action?
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A. The client has a rigid hard abdomen and elevated WBC.
B. The client has left lower quadrant pain and an elevated temperature.
C.The client is refusing to eat any of the meal and is complaining of
nausea.
D. The client has not had a bowel movement in 2 days and has a soft
abdomen. Ans: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hard rigid abdomen and elevated WBC is indicative of
peritonitis, which is a medical emergency and should be reported to the
health care provider immediately. Options B and C are expected
clinical manifestations of diverticulitis. Option D does not warrant
immediate intervention.