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ATI RN Medical-Surgical Proctored 2026(NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED
1. A patient with heart failure gains 3 pounds in 2 days. What should the nurse do first?
A. Encourage activity
B. Assess for edema and lung sounds
C. Document the weight gain
D. Offer a high-sodium snack
Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid weight gain may indicate fluid retention. Assessing edema and lung sounds
identifies worsening heart failure before interventions.
2. A patient is taking furosemide. Which electrolyte requires close monitoring?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphate
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, increasing risk of hypokalemia.
3. An S3 heart sound is heard in a 68-year-old patient. What does this indicate?
A. Normal finding
B. Early heart failure
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Valvular stenosis
Answer: B
Rationale: An S3 (“ventricular gallop”) is often an early sign of heart failure.
4. Which symptom suggests digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperactivity
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with bradycardia, visual changes, and GI upset.
5. A patient taking lisinopril develops a persistent cough. What is the likely cause?
A. Side effect of ACE inhibitor
B. Tachycardia
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C. Constipation
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, causing a dry, persistent cough.
Respiratory System
6. A COPD patient uses accessory muscles to breathe. Which oxygen delivery method is
safest?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B. Venturi mask
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. CPAP
Answer: B
Rationale: Venturi masks provide precise oxygen concentrations, preventing CO2 retention in
COPD patients.
7. Which breathing technique helps COPD patients manage dyspnea?
A. Pursed-lip breathing
B. Rapid shallow breathing
C. Breath-holding
D. Deep coughing without support
Answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing slows exhalation, improves oxygenation, and prevents airway
collapse.
8. A patient with pneumonia is confused and has O₂ sat of 88%. What is the priority
action?
A. Give antibiotics
B. Encourage fluids
C. Administer oxygen
D. Promote ambulation
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoxia is life-threatening; oxygen therapy is the priority.
9. Which side effect is common with albuterol inhalation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Constipation
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-agonist, can cause tremors and increased heart rate.
10. Which lab result indicates infection improvement after pneumonia treatment?
A. WBC 18,000 → 9,000
B. WBC 9,000 → 18,000
C. Hemoglobin 12 → 10
D. Platelets 250,000 → 300,000
Answer: A
Rationale: WBC normalization reflects resolution of infection.
Endocrine System
11. A type 1 diabetic feels shaky, sweaty, and dizzy. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Give a sugary snack
D. Call the provider
Answer: B
Rationale: Confirm hypoglycemia with a glucose check before treatment.
12. Blood glucose is 50 mg/dL. Which is appropriate?
A. Give 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate
B. Administer 5 units insulin
C. Provide high-protein snack
D. Offer water only
Answer: A
Rationale: Fast-acting carbs rapidly increase blood glucose.
13. A patient has tachycardia, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Which lab confirms
hyperthyroidism?
A. Low TSH, high T4
B. High TSH, low T4
C. Low TSH, low T4
D. High TSH, high T4
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism presents with suppressed TSH and elevated T4.
14. How should a patient take levothyroxine?
A. With meals
B. Morning on empty stomach
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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C. Only when symptomatic
D. Avoid exercise
Answer: B
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is best on an empty stomach in the morning.
15. Why rotate insulin injection sites?
A. Prevent lipodystrophy
B. Increase absorption
C. Reduce cost
D. Reduce pain
Answer: A
Rationale: Rotating sites prevents fat atrophy, which can affect insulin absorption.
Renal / GU System
16. CKD patient has BUN 68 mg/dL, creatinine 5.2 mg/dL. Priority action?
A. IV fluids
B. Monitor for fluid overload and hyperkalemia
C. Encourage high-protein diet
D. Apply compression stockings
Answer: B
Rationale: CKD increases risk of fluid overload and hyperkalemia.
17. Which dietary instructions are correct for CKD? (SATA)
A. Limit potassium
B. Limit phosphorus
C. Increase protein significantly
D. Restrict sodium
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Patients must limit potassium, phosphorus, and sodium; protein intake is moderate.
18. Fatigue and pallor in CKD patient. Which lab confirms anemia?
A. Hemoglobin 7 g/dL
B. WBC 8,000
C. Platelets 250,000
D. Sodium 140
Answer: A
Rationale: CKD reduces erythropoietin, causing anemia.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
ATI RN Medical-Surgical Proctored 2026(NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED
1. A patient with heart failure gains 3 pounds in 2 days. What should the nurse do first?
A. Encourage activity
B. Assess for edema and lung sounds
C. Document the weight gain
D. Offer a high-sodium snack
Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid weight gain may indicate fluid retention. Assessing edema and lung sounds
identifies worsening heart failure before interventions.
2. A patient is taking furosemide. Which electrolyte requires close monitoring?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Phosphate
Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, increasing risk of hypokalemia.
3. An S3 heart sound is heard in a 68-year-old patient. What does this indicate?
A. Normal finding
B. Early heart failure
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Valvular stenosis
Answer: B
Rationale: An S3 (“ventricular gallop”) is often an early sign of heart failure.
4. Which symptom suggests digoxin toxicity?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperactivity
C. Hypertension
D. Diarrhea
Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with bradycardia, visual changes, and GI upset.
5. A patient taking lisinopril develops a persistent cough. What is the likely cause?
A. Side effect of ACE inhibitor
B. Tachycardia
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
C. Constipation
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, causing a dry, persistent cough.
Respiratory System
6. A COPD patient uses accessory muscles to breathe. Which oxygen delivery method is
safest?
A. Nasal cannula at 6 L/min
B. Venturi mask
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
D. CPAP
Answer: B
Rationale: Venturi masks provide precise oxygen concentrations, preventing CO2 retention in
COPD patients.
7. Which breathing technique helps COPD patients manage dyspnea?
A. Pursed-lip breathing
B. Rapid shallow breathing
C. Breath-holding
D. Deep coughing without support
Answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing slows exhalation, improves oxygenation, and prevents airway
collapse.
8. A patient with pneumonia is confused and has O₂ sat of 88%. What is the priority
action?
A. Give antibiotics
B. Encourage fluids
C. Administer oxygen
D. Promote ambulation
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypoxia is life-threatening; oxygen therapy is the priority.
9. Which side effect is common with albuterol inhalation?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Constipation
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-agonist, can cause tremors and increased heart rate.
10. Which lab result indicates infection improvement after pneumonia treatment?
A. WBC 18,000 → 9,000
B. WBC 9,000 → 18,000
C. Hemoglobin 12 → 10
D. Platelets 250,000 → 300,000
Answer: A
Rationale: WBC normalization reflects resolution of infection.
Endocrine System
11. A type 1 diabetic feels shaky, sweaty, and dizzy. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Give a sugary snack
D. Call the provider
Answer: B
Rationale: Confirm hypoglycemia with a glucose check before treatment.
12. Blood glucose is 50 mg/dL. Which is appropriate?
A. Give 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate
B. Administer 5 units insulin
C. Provide high-protein snack
D. Offer water only
Answer: A
Rationale: Fast-acting carbs rapidly increase blood glucose.
13. A patient has tachycardia, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Which lab confirms
hyperthyroidism?
A. Low TSH, high T4
B. High TSH, low T4
C. Low TSH, low T4
D. High TSH, high T4
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism presents with suppressed TSH and elevated T4.
14. How should a patient take levothyroxine?
A. With meals
B. Morning on empty stomach
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
C. Only when symptomatic
D. Avoid exercise
Answer: B
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is best on an empty stomach in the morning.
15. Why rotate insulin injection sites?
A. Prevent lipodystrophy
B. Increase absorption
C. Reduce cost
D. Reduce pain
Answer: A
Rationale: Rotating sites prevents fat atrophy, which can affect insulin absorption.
Renal / GU System
16. CKD patient has BUN 68 mg/dL, creatinine 5.2 mg/dL. Priority action?
A. IV fluids
B. Monitor for fluid overload and hyperkalemia
C. Encourage high-protein diet
D. Apply compression stockings
Answer: B
Rationale: CKD increases risk of fluid overload and hyperkalemia.
17. Which dietary instructions are correct for CKD? (SATA)
A. Limit potassium
B. Limit phosphorus
C. Increase protein significantly
D. Restrict sodium
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Patients must limit potassium, phosphorus, and sodium; protein intake is moderate.
18. Fatigue and pallor in CKD patient. Which lab confirms anemia?
A. Hemoglobin 7 g/dL
B. WBC 8,000
C. Platelets 250,000
D. Sodium 140
Answer: A
Rationale: CKD reduces erythropoietin, causing anemia.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
