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Examen

ATI Fundamentals Assessment 2026: Professional Exam Prep Guide Featuring Test Banks, Rationales, and Quizzes

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Subido en
11-01-2026
Escrito en
2025/2026

Prolonged exposure therapy primarily involves which of the following approaches? A. Cognitive restructuring without emotional processing B. Pharmacologic sedation combined with psychotherapy C. Combining relaxation techniques with repeated exposure to traumatic situations D. Suppression of traumatic memories through distraction Rationale: Prolonged exposure therapy pairs relaxation with repeated exposure (imagined or in vivo) to reduce trauma responses. The other options do not involve exposure-based desensitization. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is best described as which intervention? A. Hypnosis-assisted trauma therapy B. Use of rapid eye movements during desensitization in a multi-phase process C. Medication-assisted cognitive therapy D. Electroconvulsive therapy Rationale: EMDR uses guided eye movements during trauma processing. The other options describe unrelated or incorrect therapeutic approaches. Which condition is a contraindication for EMDR therapy? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Major depressive disorder C. Active psychosis or dissociative disorders D. Seasonal affective disorder Rationale: EMDR is contraindicated in psychosis, dissociation, severe substance use, and certain eye conditions. The other conditions do not automatically preclude EMDR. Which of the following is a common comorbidity of depression? A. Autism spectrum disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder C. Anxiety disorders with increased suicide risk D. Parkinson’s disease Rationale: Anxiety disorders frequently coexist with depression and significantly increase suicide risk. The other options are not primary comorbidities listed. Major depressive disorder according to DSM-5 requires which minimum duration of symptoms? A. One week B. Ten days C. Two weeks D. One month Rationale: DSM-5 requires symptoms to occur daily for at least two weeks. Shorter durations do not meet diagnostic criteria. Which finding distinguishes psychotic major depressive disorder? A. Mood swings B. Insomnia C. Presence of hallucinations or delusions D. Lack of motivation Rationale: Psychotic MDD includes hallucinations or delusions. The other symptoms can occur in non-psychotic depression. Postpartum onset major depressive disorder typically begins within what time frame? A. Immediately after delivery B. Two weeks postpartum C. Four weeks after childbirth D. Six months postpartum Rationale: DSM-5 defines postpartum onset as occurring within four weeks of delivery. Later onset falls outside this specification. Seasonal affective disorder is most effectively treated with which therapy? A. Antipsychotics B. Electroconvulsive therapy C. Light therapy D. Mood stabilizers Rationale: Light therapy is the primary treatment for SAD due to reduced sunlight exposure. The other options are not first-line treatments. Dysthymic disorder is best described as which condition? A. Severe depression lasting less than one year B. Chronic mild depression lasting at least two years in adults C. Bipolar depression D. Postpartum depression Rationale: Dysthymia is a long-term, milder depressive disorder. Acute or severe episodes do not meet this definition. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs during which phase of the menstrual cycle? A. Follicular phase B. Ovulatory phase C. Luteal phase D. Menstrual phase Rationale: PMDD symptoms occur during the luteal phase. The other phases are not associated with PMDD onset. Which phase of depression treatment focuses on relapse prevention? A. Acute phase B. Continuation phase C. Maintenance phase D. Crisis phase Rationale: The continuation phase emphasizes relapse prevention through therapy and medication adherence. Mania is characterized by which minimum duration? A. Three days B. Four days C. At least one week D. One month Rationale: A manic episode must last at least one week. Shorter durations indicate hypomania. Hypomania differs from mania because hypomania: A. Requires hospitalization B. Includes psychosis C. Does not require hospitalization and lasts at least four days D. Lasts longer than mania Rationale: Hypomania is less severe, shorter in duration, and does not require hospitalization. Bipolar I disorder requires the presence of which feature? A. Hypomania only B. At least one manic episode C. Chronic depression only D. Cyclothymic symptoms Rationale: Bipolar I is defined by at least one manic episode. Hypomania alone qualifies for Bipolar II. Schizophrenia requires symptoms to be present for at least: A. One month B. Three months C. Six months D. One year Rationale: DSM-5 criteria require at least six months of symptoms with functional impairment. Which symptom is classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia? A. Hallucinations B. Delusions C. Avolition D. Flight of ideas Rationale: Negative symptoms represent absence of normal functions, such as avolition. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms. Which medication class primarily treats positive symptoms of schizophrenia? A. Antidepressants B. Mood stabilizers C. First-generation antipsychotics D. Benzodiazepines Rationale: First-generation antipsychotics are effective for positive symptoms. They do not adequately treat negative symptoms. Which antipsychotic treats positive and negative symptoms while improving cognition? A. Haloperidol B. Clozapine C. Risperidone D. Aripiprazole Rationale: Aripiprazole is a third-generation antipsychotic known to improve cognitive symptoms in addition to positive and negative symptoms. Which age group has the highest risk for substance use disorders? A. Adolescents under 15 B. Adults over 40 C. Individuals aged 20–29 D. Older adults over 65 Rationale: The highest prevalence of substance use occurs between ages 20–29. Other age groups show lower risk. Which symptom is associated with alcohol withdrawal? A. Bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Tonic-clonic seizures D. Decreased temperature Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal can cause seizures, autonomic instability, and hallucinations. The other options reflect opposite physiological effects.

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Información del documento

Subido en
11 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
45
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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2026



ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026:
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice
Questions, and Test Bank Review

A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse
delegate to an assistive personnel?
a. Changing the dressing for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury
b. Determining a client's response to a diuretic
c. Comparing radial pulses for a client who is postoperative
d. Providing postmortem care to a client

Correct answer: d

Rationale: Postmortem care is a non-invasive, routine task appropriate for assistive personnel.
Dressing changes for stage 3 wounds, medication evaluation, and assessment of pulses require
nursing judgment and cannot be delegated.



A nurse is conducting a health assessment for a client who takes herbal supplements. Which of
the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of the supplements?
a. I take ginkgo biloba for a headache
b. I take echinacea to control my cholesterol
c. I use ginger when I get car sick
d. I use garlic for my menopausal symptoms

Correct answer: c

Rationale: Ginger is commonly used to treat nausea and motion sickness. Ginkgo is used for
memory, echinacea for immune support, and garlic for cardiovascular benefits, not menopausal
symptoms.



A nurse is caring for a client who has influenza and isolation precautions in place. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?
a. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the client
b. Administer metronidazole
c. Don protective eyewear before entering the room
d. Place the client in a negative airflow room

,2026


Correct answer: a

Rationale: Influenza requires droplet precautions, including wearing a mask within close
proximity. Negative airflow rooms are for airborne infections, and medications or eyewear are
not primary preventive measures.



A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out an NG
tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Attach the restraints securely to the side rails of the client's bed
b. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible
c. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client’s skin and the restraints
d. Remove the restraints every 4 hours

Correct answer: c

Rationale: Two-finger spacing ensures circulation and prevents injury. Restraints should never
be tied to side rails, should allow movement, and must be removed at least every 2 hours.



A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission
precautions should the nurse plan to initiate?
a. Droplet
b. Airborne
c. Protective environment
d. Contact

Correct answer: b

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles and requires airborne
precautions with a negative-pressure room.



A nurse in a well-child clinic receives a call from a parent stating their child swallowed paint
thinner. The child is awake and alert. Which response should the nurse make?
a. Have your child drink one large glass of water
b. Hang up and call a poison control center hotline
c. Bring your child into the clinic later today
d. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac

Correct answer: a

,2026


Rationale: Drinking water helps dilute the substance. Inducing vomiting is contraindicated, and
immediate action should be taken rather than delayed evaluation.



A nurse is documenting a client’s medical record. Which entry should the nurse record?
a. Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800
b. Administered pain medication
c. Incision without redness or drainage
d. Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals

Correct answer: b

Rationale: Documentation must be objective and specific. “Administered pain medication”
reflects a completed action, while the other options are vague or subjective.



A nurse is providing oral care for an unconscious client. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Place the client in a side-lying position
b. Brush the client’s teeth daily
c. Apply mineral oil to the lips
d. Use an alcohol-based mouthwash

Correct answer: a

Rationale: Side-lying positioning reduces aspiration risk. Alcohol dries oral mucosa, and mineral
oil is unsafe if aspirated.



A nurse is collaborating with risk management about legal issues. Which situation is an example
of negligence?
a. Administering medication without identifying the client
b. Discussing client care in the cafeteria
c. Beginning a blood transfusion without consent
d. Preventing a client from leaving the facility

Correct answer: c

Rationale: Performing a procedure without informed consent is negligence. The other options
represent different legal violations.

, 2026


A nurse is collecting a sputum specimen for culture. Which action should the nurse take?
a. Wear sterile gloves
b. Offer oral hygiene after collection
c. Collect the specimen in the evening
d. Collect 1 mL of sputum

Correct answer: b

Rationale: Oral hygiene after collection improves comfort and reduces contamination.
Specimens are best collected in the morning, and clean gloves are sufficient.



A nurse is assessing an older adult. Which finding should the nurse expect?
a. Decreased sense of balance
b. Increased nighttime sleeping
c. Heightened sense of pain
d. Nighttime urinary incontinence

Correct answer: a

Rationale: Aging affects balance due to sensory and musculoskeletal changes. The other findings
are not expected normal changes.



A nurse is completing discharge teaching about ostomy care. Which instructions should be
included? (Select all that apply)
a. Cut the pouch opening 1/8 inch larger than the stoma
b. Place gauze over the stoma when changing the pouch
c. Use povidone-iodine to clean around the stoma
d. Empty the pouch when one-third full
e. Expect the stoma to turn purple-blue while healing

Correct answers: a, b, d

Rationale: Proper sizing prevents skin damage, gauze absorbs drainage, and emptying early
prevents leakage. Iodine is irritating, and a purple-blue stoma indicates compromised circulation.



A nurse is preparing to obtain informed consent from a client who speaks a different language.
Which action should the nurse take?
a. Use assistive personnel as an interpreter
b. Use proper medical terms
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