ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam
Study Guide 2026: Core Nursing
Concepts, Practice Exams, and Review
Questions
A nurse is assessing a client with a history of herpes zoster. Which finding suggests the client is
experiencing postherpetic neuralgia?
a. Vesicular lesions along a dermatome
b. Fever and malaise
c. Report of continued pain after the rash has resolved
d. Pruritus at the healed site
Rationale: Postherpetic neuralgia is characterized by persistent neuropathic pain after the
shingles rash has healed. Vesicles and fever occur during active infection, and itching alone does
not indicate neuralgia.
A nurse is providing care for a client receiving therapy for MRSA. Which action is most
important during treatment?
a. Monitor white blood cell count daily
b. Administer probiotics with antibiotics
c. Place the client on droplet precautions
d. Monitor the client’s serum antimicrobial levels
Rationale: Monitoring serum antimicrobial levels ensures therapeutic dosing and prevents
toxicity. WBC counts are supportive data, MRSA requires contact precautions (not droplet), and
probiotics are not a priority safety intervention.
Which finding is an atypical indication of infection in an older adult?
a. Fever
b. Elevated white blood cell count
c. Dysuria
d. Urinary incontinence
Rationale: Older adults may present with atypical signs such as new-onset urinary incontinence.
Fever, leukocytosis, and dysuria are typical infection indicators.
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Which findings are manifestations of hypovolemia?
a. Bradycardia and hypertension
b. Bounding pulses and edema
c. Tachycardia, syncope, and decreased skin turgor
d. Jugular vein distention and crackles
Rationale: Hypovolemia leads to compensatory tachycardia, dizziness or syncope, and poor skin
turgor. The other options reflect fluid overload.
Which laboratory results indicate a client is developing dehydration?
a. Sodium 135 mEq/L
b. Urine specific gravity 1.010
c. Hematocrit 55%
d. Serum osmolality 275 mOsm/kg
Rationale: An elevated hematocrit reflects hemoconcentration from fluid loss. Normal sodium,
dilute urine, and low osmolality do not indicate dehydration.
Which client is most at risk for developing hypovolemia?
a. Client with chronic kidney disease
b. Client receiving corticosteroids
c. Client with SIADH
d. Client who has heart failure
Rationale: Clients with heart failure are often treated with diuretics, increasing the risk for
hypovolemia. The other conditions are more commonly associated with fluid retention.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with hypernatremia. Which intervention is
appropriate?
a. Restrict oral fluids
b. Administer hypertonic saline
c. Increase sodium intake
d. Infuse hypotonic IV fluids
Rationale: Hypotonic fluids help dilute elevated sodium levels. Fluid restriction and hypertonic
saline worsen hypernatremia, and increasing sodium is contraindicated.
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Which manifestation is associated with hypocalcemia?
a. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
b. Flaccid muscle tone
c. Hand and finger spasms during blood pressure cuff inflation
d. Polyuria
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation) indicates hypocalcemia.
Decreased reflexes and flaccidity occur with hypercalcemia.
A nurse reviews laboratory values. Which sodium level is within the expected reference range?
a. 128 mEq/L
b. 132 mEq/L
c. 140 mEq/L
d. 150 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal sodium levels range from 135–145 mEq/L. The other values indicate hypo- or
hypernatremia.
Which example best illustrates tertiary prevention?
a. Administering childhood vaccines
b. Screening adults for hypertension
c. Teaching smoking cessation
d. Improving quality of life and reducing symptoms in a client with HIV
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing complications and improving quality of life
in chronic illness. The other options reflect primary or secondary prevention.
A nurse suspects a colleague is impaired while on duty. What is the priority action?
a. Document observations in the medical record
b. Confront the nurse directly
c. Ignore the behavior unless a client is harmed
d. Notify the nurse manager immediately
Rationale: Protecting client safety is the priority, and reporting concerns to the nurse manager
follows proper chain of command. Direct confrontation or inaction is inappropriate.
A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells. Which action is required before
initiating the transfusion?
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a. Prime tubing with lactated Ringer’s solution
b. Use a 22-gauge IV catheter
c. Have two nurses verify the blood product and client identification
d. Infuse the blood within 6 hours
Rationale: Two-nurse verification prevents transfusion errors. Only 0.9% NS is used for priming,
an 18–20 gauge catheter is required, and transfusion must be completed within 4 hours.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client. Which potassium level requires immediate
intervention?
a. 3.8 mEq/L
b. 4.5 mEq/L
c. 5.0 mEq/L
d. 6.2 mEq/L
Rationale: A potassium level above 5.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can cause life-
threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. The other values are within normal limits.
A nurse is caring for a client with suspected dehydration. Which additional laboratory finding
supports this diagnosis?
a. Serum sodium 136 mEq/L
b. Urine specific gravity 1.005
c. Serum osmolality 310 mOsm/kg
d. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Rationale: Elevated serum osmolality indicates concentrated blood due to fluid loss. Low urine
specific gravity and normal sodium or hemoglobin do not support dehydration.
A nurse is assessing a client with hypovolemia. Which assessment finding should the nurse
expect?
a. Bounding peripheral pulses
b. Hypertension
c. Crackles in lung bases
d. Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Hypovolemia causes decreased circulating volume, leading to orthostatic hypotension.
Bounding pulses and crackles suggest fluid overload.
A nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV vancomycin. Which adverse effect should the nurse
report immediately?