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Examen

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2026: Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Questions, and Test Bank Review

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Subido en
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Escrito en
2025/2026

A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel? a. Changing the dressing for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury b. Determining a client's response to a diuretic c. Comparing radial pulses for a client who is postoperative d. Providing postmortem care to a client Correct answer: d Rationale: Postmortem care is a non-invasive, routine task appropriate for assistive personnel. Dressing changes for stage 3 wounds, medication evaluation, and assessment of pulses require nursing judgment and cannot be delegated. A nurse is conducting a health assessment for a client who takes herbal supplements. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of the supplements? a. I take ginkgo biloba for a headache b. I take echinacea to control my cholesterol c. I use ginger when I get car sick d. I use garlic for my menopausal symptoms Correct answer: c Rationale: Ginger is commonly used to treat nausea and motion sickness. Ginkgo is used for memory, echinacea for immune support, and garlic for cardiovascular benefits, not menopausal symptoms. A nurse is caring for a client who has influenza and isolation precautions in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection? a. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the client b. Administer metronidazole c. Don protective eyewear before entering the room d. Place the client in a negative airflow room Correct answer: a Rationale: Influenza requires droplet precautions, including wearing a mask within close proximity. Negative airflow rooms are for airborne infections, and medications or eyewear are not primary preventive measures. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. Attach the restraints securely to the side rails of the client's bed b. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible c. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client’s skin and the restraints d. Remove the restraints every 4 hours Correct answer: c Rationale: Two-finger spacing ensures circulation and prevents injury. Restraints should never be tied to side rails, should allow movement, and must be removed at least every 2 hours. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse plan to initiate? a. Droplet b. Airborne c. Protective environment d. Contact Correct answer: b Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles and requires airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room. A nurse in a well-child clinic receives a call from a parent stating their child swallowed paint thinner. The child is awake and alert. Which response should the nurse make? a. Have your child drink one large glass of water b. Hang up and call a poison control center hotline c. Bring your child into the clinic later today d. Induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac Correct answer: a Rationale: Drinking water helps dilute the substance. Inducing vomiting is contraindicated, and immediate action should be taken rather than delayed evaluation. A nurse is documenting a client’s medical record. Which entry should the nurse record? a. Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800 b. Administered pain medication c. Incision without redness or drainage d. Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals Correct answer: b Rationale: Documentation must be objective and specific. “Administered pain medication” reflects a completed action, while the other options are vague or subjective. A nurse is providing oral care for an unconscious client. Which action should the nurse take? a. Place the client in a side-lying position b. Brush the client’s teeth daily c. Apply mineral oil to the lips d. Use an alcohol-based mouthwash Correct answer: a Rationale: Side-lying positioning reduces aspiration risk. Alcohol dries oral mucosa, and mineral oil is unsafe if aspirated. A nurse is collaborating with risk management about legal issues. Which situation is an example of negligence? a. Administering medication without identifying the client b. Discussing client care in the cafeteria c. Beginning a blood transfusion without consent d. Preventing a client from leaving the facility Correct answer: c Rationale: Performing a procedure without informed consent is negligence. The other options represent different legal violations. A nurse is collecting a sputum specimen for culture. Which action should the nurse take? a. Wear sterile gloves b. Offer oral hygiene after collection c. Collect the specimen in the evening d. Collect 1 mL of sputum Correct answer: b Rationale: Oral hygiene after collection improves comfort and reduces contamination. Specimens are best collected in the morning, and clean gloves are sufficient. A nurse is assessing an older adult. Which finding should the nurse expect? a. Decreased sense of balance b. Increased nighttime sleeping c. Heightened sense of pain d. Nighttime urinary incontinence Correct answer: a Rationale: Aging affects balance due to sensory and musculoskeletal changes. The other findings are not expected normal changes. A nurse is completing discharge teaching about ostomy care. Which instructions should be included? (Select all that apply) a. Cut the pouch opening 1/8 inch larger than the stoma b. Place gauze over the stoma when changing the pouch c. Use povidone-iodine to clean around the stoma d. Empty the pouch when one-third full e. Expect the stoma to turn purple-blue while healing Correct answers: a, b, d Rationale: Proper sizing prevents skin damage, gauze absorbs drainage, and emptying early prevents leakage. Iodine is irritating, and a purple-blue stoma indicates compromised circulation. A nurse is preparing to obtain informed consent from a client who speaks a different language. Which action should the nurse take? a. Use assistive personnel as an interpreter b. Use proper medical terms c. Offer written information in the client’s language d. Avoid gestures Correct answer: c Rationale: Written materials in the client’s language support understanding. Trained interpreters should be used, not assistive personnel. A nurse is teaching about home oxygen equipment. Which information should be included? (Select all that apply) a. Avoid wool blankets b. Check the oxygen delivery rate daily c. Align the center of the ball with the prescribed flow rate d. Keep oxygen 0.6 m from heat sources e. Lay the oxygen tank flat Correct answers: a, b, c, d Rationale: These actions reduce fire risk and ensure accurate oxygen delivery. Tanks should be stored upright. A nurse is planning care for a client with insomnia. Which action should be performed shortly before bedtime? a. Provide a late supper b. Offer a wet washcloth for face washing c. Perform range-of-motion exercises d. Prepare hot cocoa or tea Correct answer: a Rationale: A light snack promotes sleep. Exercise and caffeine-containing beverages interfere with sleep. A nurse receives change-of-shift report. Which client should be seen first? a. Acute abdominal pain rated 4/10 b. Pneumonia with oxygen saturation of 96% c. New onset dyspnea 24 hours after hip surgery d. UTI with low-grade fever Correct answer: c Rationale: New dyspnea postoperatively suggests pulmonary embolism and requires immediate assessment. A nurse calculates intake and output. IV intake totals 700 mL. Output totals 260 mL. What is the net intake? Correct answer: 700 mL Rationale: Intake includes IV fluids totaling 700 mL. Output does not affect intake documentation, only net balance. A nurse discusses incident reports. Which situation requires completion of an incident report? a. Prescribed lab testing not obtained b. Client withdrew consent c. Nurse arrived late d. Blood transfusion completed in 2 hours Correct answer: a Rationale: Missed prescribed care requires incident reporting to improve safety and quality. A nurse is unfamiliar with negative-pressure wound therapy. Which resource should be consulted? a. Client plan of care b. Nurse practice act c. Material safety data sheet d. Policy and procedure manual Correct answer: d Rationale: Facility policies provide step-by-step guidance for procedures. A nurse is performing postural drainage for cystic fibrosis. Which action should be taken? a. Cover area with a towel b. Instruct client to exhale quickly c. Schedule after meals d. Perform percussion over lower back Correct answer: d Rationale: Percussion over lung segments improves secretion removal. It should be done before meals, not after. A nurse prepares diphenhydramine 20 mg for a child. Available: 12.5 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be administered? Correct answer: 8 mL Rationale: Calculation: (20 ÷ 12.5) × 5 = 8 mL. A malnourished client worries about losing a loose wedding ring. What is the appropriate response? a. Place it in the drawer b. Pin it to the gown c. Hold it until family arrives d. Place it in locked storage Correct answer: d Rationale: Locked storage protects valuables and follows facility policy. A charge nurse is teaching restraint use. When should restraints be applied? a. Client pacing b. Fall prevention c. Family request d. Client poses a threat to self Correct answer: d Rationale: Restraints are a last resort used only to prevent harm. A nurse manager observes a newly licensed nurse performing catheterization. Which role is the manager functioning in? a. Case manager b. Client educator c. Care provider d. Client advocate Correct answer: d Rationale: Ensuring safe care protects the client’s rights and well-being. A charge nurse teaches about delirium. Which statement should be included? a. Delirium does not affect perception b. Delirium does not affect sleep c. Delirium has an abrupt onset d. Delirium progresses slowly Correct answer: c Rationale: Delirium is acute and fluctuating, unlike dementia. A client says, “The doctor must be wrong. I can’t be that sick.” Which grief response is this? a. Acceptance b. Denial c. Anger d. Depression Correct answer: b Rationale: Denial is a common initial response to diagnosis. A nurse identifies an ethical dilemma. Which situation qualifies? a. Surgeon refuses responsibility b. Insurance refusal c. Client refuses ostomy teaching d. Family asks provider not to tell client diagnosis Correct answer: d Rationale: Withholding information conflicts with autonomy and ethical principles. A nurse teaches breast self-examination. Which statement shows understanding? a. Perform during menstruation b. Use different patterns c. Use palm of hand d. Make circular motions with fingertips under arms Correct answer: d Rationale: Circular fingertip motions ensure thorough assessment, including axillary areas. A nurse transfers a partially weight-bearing client. Which action is correct? a. Keep knees straight b. Place chair at 90 degrees c. Stand with feet together d. Have client bear weight on stronger leg Correct answer: d Rationale: Using the stronger leg improves safety and stability during transfers.

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Información del documento

Subido en
11 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
31
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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Preguntas y respuestas

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2026



ATI Fundamentals Proctored
Examination 2026: A Comprehensive
Academic Study Guide with Evidence-
Based Practice Questions

Which side effects are most commonly associated with Elavil (amitriptyline)?
A. Hypertension and insomnia
B. Weight loss and diarrhea
C. Orthostatic hypotension and dry mouth
D. Hyperreflexia and fever

Rationale: Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant with anticholinergic effects, causing dry mouth and
orthostatic hypotension. The other options reflect effects not typical of TCAs.



Which drug class interacts dangerously with foods containing tyramine?
A. SSRIs
B. TCAs
C. MAOIs
D. Benzodiazepines

Rationale: MAOIs inhibit tyramine breakdown, leading to hypertensive crisis. Other
antidepressant classes do not have this interaction.



A common adverse effect of Prozac (fluoxetine) is:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Sexual dysfunction
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Bradycardia

Rationale: SSRIs commonly cause sexual dysfunction. The other effects are associated with
different medication classes.

,2026


Which findings indicate serotonin syndrome?
A. Hypotension and bradycardia
B. Muscle rigidity and hypothermia
C. Change in mental status, tremors, and hyperreflexia
D. Dry mouth and urinary retention

Rationale: Serotonin syndrome presents with neuromuscular hyperactivity and altered mental
status. Anticholinergic effects are unrelated.



Therapeutic lithium levels range from:
A. 0.1–0.3 mEq/L
B. 0.4–1.0 mEq/L
C. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.0–3.0 mEq/L

Rationale: Lithium levels above 1.5 mEq/L increase toxicity risk. Lower levels may be
ineffective.



Which medication interaction increases the risk of lithium toxicity?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Antacids
C. NSAIDs
D. Beta blockers

Rationale: NSAIDs reduce renal lithium clearance, raising serum levels. The other medications
do not significantly affect lithium.



Which teaching helps prevent lithium toxicity?
A. Increase caffeine intake
B. Follow a low-sodium diet
C. Avoid activities causing sodium or water depletion
D. Restrict fluid intake

Rationale: Sodium and fluid loss increase lithium levels. Adequate hydration is essential.



Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with lithium therapy?
A. Alopecia
B. Tremors

,2026


C. Constipation
D. Photosensitivity

Rationale: Fine hand tremors are a common lithium side effect. The others are not typical.



A client taking Depakote requires monitoring of which labs?
A. INR, potassium, calcium
B. BUN, creatinine, glucose
C. Platelet count, amylase, liver function tests
D. Sodium, magnesium, phosphate

Rationale: Depakote can cause thrombocytopenia, pancreatitis, and hepatotoxicity.



Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are most closely related to:
A. Mood and affect
B. Social functioning
C. Behavior, thought, and speech
D. Memory and cognition

Rationale: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized
speech/behavior.



Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include:
A. Delusions and hallucinations
B. Flight of ideas
C. Social withdrawal, lack of emotion, and lack of energy
D. Pressured speech

Rationale: Negative symptoms reflect absence of normal behaviors and emotions.



Thorazine (chlorpromazine) is most effective in improving which symptoms?
A. Cognitive symptoms
B. Negative symptoms
C. Positive symptoms
D. Mood symptoms

Rationale: First-generation antipsychotics primarily treat positive symptoms.

, 2026




Which intervention helps relieve anticholinergic effects from Prolixin?
A. Limit fluid intake
B. Avoid oral hygiene
C. Chew gum, sip liquids, or suck hard candy
D. Use antihistamines

Rationale: These measures stimulate saliva and relieve dry mouth caused by anticholinergic
effects.



Several hours after administering a typical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for:
A. Tardive dyskinesia
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Acute dystonia such as neck spasms
D. Agranulocytosis

Rationale: Acute dystonia occurs within hours to days of initiating typical antipsychotics.



Which lab must be closely monitored in a client taking Clozaril (clozapine)?
A. Platelet count
B. Liver enzymes
C. White blood cell count
D. Sodium level

Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, requiring WBC monitoring.



Clients taking SSRIs should be monitored early in therapy for:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Fever, hyperreflexia, agitation, and hallucinations
D. Jaundice

Rationale: These symptoms indicate serotonin syndrome, most likely within 2–72 hours.



Which adverse effect of Elavil reflects its anticholinergic properties?
A. Bradycardia
B. Photophobia
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