TEAS Practice and Assessment Guide 2026: Structured Quizzes, Full-Length Exams, and Performance Analysis

Which primary function of bones allows them to store calcium and phosphate ions for the body? A. Protection B. Support C. Blood cell formation D. Mineral storage Answer: D Rationale: Bones store essential minerals like calcium and phosphate. Protection, support, and blood cell formation are important functions but do not involve mineral storage. Which skeletal function provides a rigid framework that maintains body shape and supports organs? A. Mineral storage B. Blood cell formation C. Support D. Protection Answer: C Rationale: Support refers to bones forming the structural framework. Mineral storage and blood cell formation are metabolic functions, while protection refers to shielding organs. Bones that surround the brain and thoracic organs primarily serve which function? A. Support B. Protection C. Movement D. Mineral storage Answer: B Rationale: The skull and rib cage protect vital organs. Support refers to structure, movement involves muscle attachment, and mineral storage is metabolic. Red blood cells are produced in which location? A. Compact bone B. Cartilage C. Bone marrow D. Periosteum Answer: C Rationale: Red blood cells are formed in red bone marrow. Compact bone and periosteum provide structure, while cartilage cushions joints. How many bones are present in the adult human body? A. 201 B. 212 C. 206 D. 198 Answer: C Rationale: The adult human skeleton consists of 206 bones. Other values are incorrect counts. Which skeletal division includes the skull, ribs, sternum, and vertebral column? A. Appendicular skeleton B. Peripheral skeleton C. Axial skeleton D. Limb skeleton Answer: C Rationale: The axial skeleton forms the central axis of the body. The appendicular skeleton includes limbs and girdles. Which skeletal division includes the arms, legs, shoulders, and hips? A. Axial skeleton B. Appendicular skeleton C. Central skeleton D. Cranial skeleton Answer: B Rationale: The appendicular skeleton consists of limb bones and their attachments. The axial skeleton includes the skull and spine. Trauma may cause herniation of which structure between vertebrae? A. Vertebral foramen B. Ligament C. Intervertebral disc D. Spinal nerve Answer: C Rationale: Intervertebral discs absorb shock and can herniate when damaged. The other structures do not serve this cushioning role. What term describes areas where adjacent bones come into contact? A. Ligaments B. Cartilage C. Joints D. Tendons Answer: C Rationale: Joints are the points of contact between bones. Ligaments connect bone to bone, and tendons connect muscle to bone. Which type of joint is freely movable and most common in the body? A. Fibrous B. Cartilaginous C. Synovial D. Fixed Answer: C Rationale: Synovial joints allow free movement, such as in knees and shoulders. Fibrous and cartilaginous joints limit movement. Which joint type has fibrous tissue and no joint cavity? A. Synovial B. Cartilaginous C. Fibrous D. Ball-and-socket Answer: C Rationale: Fibrous joints are immovable and lack a cavity. Synovial joints contain fluid and allow movement. Which muscle property refers to the ability to respond to stimulation? A. Contraction B. Elongation C. Excitability D. Elasticity Answer: C Rationale: Excitability allows muscles to respond to electrical impulses. Contraction and elongation involve movement, not stimulation. Which muscle property allows muscle fibers to shorten? A. Excitability B. Contraction C. Elongation D. Flexibility Answer: B Rationale: Contraction refers to shortening of muscle fibers. Elongation is relaxation, while excitability is responsiveness. Which digestive function involves chemical breakdown of food into smaller units? A. Absorption B. Secretion C. Movement D. Digestion Answer: D Rationale: Digestion chemically breaks down nutrients. Absorption moves nutrients into blood, secretion releases enzymes, and movement propels food. Where does most nutrient absorption occur? A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Esophagus Answer: C Rationale: The small intestine absorbs most nutrients. The stomach digests, and the large intestine absorbs water. Which organ concentrates, mixes, and stores waste material? A. Small intestine B. Rectum C. Stomach D. Large intestine Answer: D Rationale: The large intestine absorbs water and stores feces. Other organs have digestive or transport roles. What system returns excess fluid to the bloodstream and transports fats? A. Circulatory system B. Immune system C. Lymphatic system D. Digestive system Answer: C Rationale: The lymphatic system returns fluids, transports fats, and removes waste. Other systems have different primary roles. Which immune cell directly attacks infected cells? A. B lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. T lymphocytes D. Plasma cells Answer: C Rationale: T lymphocytes destroy infected cells. B cells produce antibodies, and macrophages engulf pathogens. Which structure is encased in the vertebral column and protected by bone? A. Brainstem B. Peripheral nerves C. Spinal cord D. Cerebellum Answer: C Rationale: The spinal cord runs through the vertebral canal and is protected by vertebrae. The brainstem and cerebellum are housed in the skull, while peripheral nerves are not encased in bone. Which part of the brain includes the medulla oblongata? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Cerebrum Answer: C Rationale: The medulla oblongata is part of the hindbrain. The forebrain includes the cerebrum, and the midbrain is a separate region. Which adrenal gland region helps regulate lipid and protein metabolism? A. Adrenal medulla B. Adrenal cortex C. Pituitary gland D. Thyroid gland Answer: B Rationale: The adrenal cortex regulates metabolism and blood sugar. The adrenal medulla controls stress responses. Which gland controls heart rate and raises blood sugar during stress? A. Adrenal cortex B. Pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Adrenal medulla Answer: D Rationale: The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine and norepinephrine. Other glands do not control acute stress responses. Which gland regulates metabolism and contributes to growth and development? A. Parathyroid B. Pituitary C. Thyroid D. Pineal Answer: C Rationale: The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism. The pituitary regulates other glands, and the pineal affects sleep cycles. Which gland regulates calcium levels in the blood? A. Thyroid B. Pituitary C. Parathyroid D. Thymus Answer: C Rationale: The parathyroid gland maintains calcium balance. The thyroid regulates metabolism, not calcium levels. Which endocrine structure raises and lowers blood sugar levels? A. Adrenal medulla B. Thyroid gland C. Pancreatic islets D. Pituitary gland Answer: C Rationale: Pancreatic islets secrete insulin and glucagon. Other glands do not directly control blood glucose. Which gland plays a key role in immune system development? A. Pineal B. Pituitary C. Thymus D. Adrenal cortex Answer: C Rationale: The thymus supports immune responses by maturing T cells. Other glands regulate hormones unrelated to immunity. Which gland influences daily biological rhythms? A. Pituitary B. Thyroid C. Pineal D. Parathyroid Answer: C Rationale: The pineal gland secretes melatonin, regulating sleep cycles. Other glands have metabolic or growth roles. Which gland is considered the “master gland” due to its influence on growth and development? A. Thyroid B. Pineal C. Pituitary D. Adrenal Answer: C Rationale: The pituitary controls other endocrine glands. It plays a central role in growth regulation. What term describes the number of births per 1,000 people in a population? A. Fertility rate B. Death rate C. Population momentum D. Birth rate Answer: D Rationale: Birth rate measures births per 1,000 people. Fertility rate measures children per woman. What term describes the average number of children born to each woman in a society? A. Birth rate B. Death rate C. Fertility rate D. Population density Answer: C Rationale: Fertility rate reflects reproductive behavior. Birth rate measures population-level births. What phenomenon explains continued population growth despite declining birth rates? A. Fertility transition B. Birth rate increase C. Population momentum D. Death rate reduction Answer: C Rationale: Population momentum occurs when many individuals are in childbearing years, sustaining growth. Which nervous system division carries sensory information toward the CNS? A. Efferent fibers B. Motor nerves C. Afferent fibers D. Autonomic nerves Answer: C Rationale: Afferent fibers transmit sensory input to the CNS. Efferent fibers send signals away. Which fibers transmit impulses away from the CNS to organs? A. Afferent B. Sensory C. Efferent D. Interneurons Answer: C Rationale: Efferent fibers carry motor output. Afferent fibers carry sensory input. Which nervous system controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement? A. Autonomic nervous system B. Peripheral nervous system C. Somatic nervous system D. Limbic system Answer: C Rationale: The somatic nervous system controls voluntary actions. The autonomic system controls involuntary actions. Which system controls involuntary functions such as digestion and heart rate? A. Somatic B. Central C. Autonomic D. Sensory Answer: C Rationale: The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary visceral activities. Which neurons carry impulses from receptors to the CNS? A. Motor neurons B. Interneurons C. Sensory neurons D. Efferent neurons Answer: C Rationale: Sensory neurons transmit input to the CNS. Motor neurons send commands outward.