HealthStream Jane Assessment Test
Exam 2026/2027 Verified Questions
with Correct Solutions 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1 A patient is experiencing chest pain rated 8/10, radiating to the left arm, with shortness of
breath and diaphoresis. What is the nurse’s first priority action?
Answer: Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes
Rationale: Chest pain suggestive of acute coronary syndrome requires immediate ECG to
identify STEMI or unstable angina and guide reperfusion therapy.
Q2 A patient with suspected acute myocardial infarction has ST-segment elevation in leads V2–
V4. This indicates injury in which coronary artery territory?
Answer: Left anterior descending (LAD) artery
Rationale: Anterior wall STEMI (V1–V4) is most commonly caused by occlusion of the LAD
artery.
Q3 A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with STEMI. The nearest PCI-capable
facility is 45 minutes away. What is the recommended reperfusion strategy?
Answer: Immediate fibrinolysis if PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA guidelines, fibrinolysis is indicated if first medical contact to device
time >120 minutes and no contraindications exist.
Q4 Which medication should be administered immediately to a patient with acute STEMI unless
contraindicated?
, Answer: Aspirin 162–325 mg chewed
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation and is the single most important
immediate therapy in ACS (Class I recommendation).
Q5 A patient with heart failure has an S3 gallop, jugular venous distention, and bilateral
crackles. This presentation is most consistent with:
Answer: Left ventricular systolic dysfunction
Rationale: S3 gallop, JVD, and pulmonary crackles indicate volume overload and left
ventricular failure with pulmonary congestion.
Q6 A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. The nurse should monitor for
which electrolyte abnormality?
Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause significant potassium wasting in the loop of Henle.
Q7 A patient with chronic heart failure has a serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L while on
furosemide. Which medication should be added?
Answer: Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and indicated in HFrEF (NYHA II–IV) to
reduce mortality and hospitalizations (RALES trial).
Q8 A patient with HFrEF is already on carvedilol, sacubitril/valsartan, spironolactone, and an
SGLT2 inhibitor. Which additional therapy has the strongest evidence for further mortality
reduction?
Answer: Ivabradine (if sinus rhythm and HR ≥70 bpm)
Rationale: Ivabradine reduces heart rate and is indicated in HFrEF when HR remains elevated
despite optimal therapy (SHIFT trial).
Exam 2026/2027 Verified Questions
with Correct Solutions 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Graded A+
Q1 A patient is experiencing chest pain rated 8/10, radiating to the left arm, with shortness of
breath and diaphoresis. What is the nurse’s first priority action?
Answer: Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes
Rationale: Chest pain suggestive of acute coronary syndrome requires immediate ECG to
identify STEMI or unstable angina and guide reperfusion therapy.
Q2 A patient with suspected acute myocardial infarction has ST-segment elevation in leads V2–
V4. This indicates injury in which coronary artery territory?
Answer: Left anterior descending (LAD) artery
Rationale: Anterior wall STEMI (V1–V4) is most commonly caused by occlusion of the LAD
artery.
Q3 A patient in the emergency department is diagnosed with STEMI. The nearest PCI-capable
facility is 45 minutes away. What is the recommended reperfusion strategy?
Answer: Immediate fibrinolysis if PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA guidelines, fibrinolysis is indicated if first medical contact to device
time >120 minutes and no contraindications exist.
Q4 Which medication should be administered immediately to a patient with acute STEMI unless
contraindicated?
, Answer: Aspirin 162–325 mg chewed
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation and is the single most important
immediate therapy in ACS (Class I recommendation).
Q5 A patient with heart failure has an S3 gallop, jugular venous distention, and bilateral
crackles. This presentation is most consistent with:
Answer: Left ventricular systolic dysfunction
Rationale: S3 gallop, JVD, and pulmonary crackles indicate volume overload and left
ventricular failure with pulmonary congestion.
Q6 A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. The nurse should monitor for
which electrolyte abnormality?
Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause significant potassium wasting in the loop of Henle.
Q7 A patient with chronic heart failure has a serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L while on
furosemide. Which medication should be added?
Answer: Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and indicated in HFrEF (NYHA II–IV) to
reduce mortality and hospitalizations (RALES trial).
Q8 A patient with HFrEF is already on carvedilol, sacubitril/valsartan, spironolactone, and an
SGLT2 inhibitor. Which additional therapy has the strongest evidence for further mortality
reduction?
Answer: Ivabradine (if sinus rhythm and HR ≥70 bpm)
Rationale: Ivabradine reduces heart rate and is indicated in HFrEF when HR remains elevated
despite optimal therapy (SHIFT trial).
