ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 | Questions with Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Antepartum Care
Q1: A primigravid client at 36 weeks gestation reports a persistent frontal headache for
4 hours, “spots” in her visual field, and sharp epigastric pain. Her BP is 158/102 mmHg.
Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Offer a dark, quiet room and acetaminophen
B. Notify the provider immediately and obtain a urine protein dipstick
C. Re-check BP in 15 minutes while client rests on left side
D. Start an IV of normal saline at 125 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and BPs ≥ 160/110 signal
possible severe pre-eclampsia—an acute maternal/fetal safety risk requiring rapid
evaluation (labs, possible magnesium sulfate, delivery planning). Option A delays urgent
intervention, C treats this as routine gestational hypertension, and D initiates treatment
without orders.
Q2: A client at 28 weeks reports sudden, painless vaginal bleeding that stopped after 10
minutes. FHR is 150 bpm with moderate variability. Which finding requires IMMEDIATE
intervention?
A. Fundal height 30 cm
,B. BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm
C. FHR 145 bpm with accelerations
D. Small amount of old blood on perineal pad
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension + tachycardia suggests significant hemorrhage and possible
hypovolemic shock (ABCs). A is within normal limits, C is reassuring fetal status, and D
describes old (clotted) bleeding, not active hemorrhage.
Q3: A G1P0 client at 18 weeks has a 1-hour GTT result of 185 mg/dL. Which instruction
is MOST appropriate?
A. Schedule a 3-hour GTT
B. Begin diabetic teaching and nutritional counseling
C. Start bedtime NPH insulin tonight
D. Reassure that this is a normal result
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 1-hour GTT ≥ 180 mg/dL diagnoses gestational diabetes; initial management
is nutrition/diabetic education and glucose monitoring. A is unnecessary after
diagnostic threshold, C is premature without nutritional trial, and D is inaccurate.
Q4: A client at 20 weeks reports constant right-lower abdominal pain and shoulder pain.
She has a history of ectopic pregnancy. VS: BP 100/60, HR 110, RR 24. Which action is
PRIORITY?
A. Offer oral analgesia
B. Notify provider STAT and prepare for possible surgical evaluation
, C. Position on left side and monitor FHR
D. Start IV hydration at 150 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder pain, unilateral abdominal pain, and tachycardia are red flags for
ruptured ectopic or abruption—life-threatening (circulation/safety). A masks symptoms,
C is supportive but not urgent, and D delays necessary OB/GYN assessment.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks is Rh-negative, antibody-negative, and experiences abdominal
trauma in a minor MVC. Which order should the nurse anticipate FIRST?
A. 300 mcg RhoGAM IM within 72 hours
B. Kleihauer-Betke test; give RhoGAM within 72 hours if indicated
C. Immediate cesarean section
D. Non-stress test in 1 week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: KB quantifies feto-maternal bleed to determine RhoGAM dose (standard is
300 mcg within 72 h, but KB may increase dose). A gives standard dose without
quantification, C is not indicated for minor trauma without maternal/fetal compromise,
and D delays necessary fetal-maternal testing.
Q6: A client at 10 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting, unable to keep fluids
down for 24 hours. Urine ketones 2+. Which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. Weight loss of 1 lb since last visit
B. Pulse 112 bpm, BP 90/50 mmHg, dry mucous membranes
C. Serum Hgb 11.5 g/dL
2026/2027 | Questions with Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Antepartum Care
Q1: A primigravid client at 36 weeks gestation reports a persistent frontal headache for
4 hours, “spots” in her visual field, and sharp epigastric pain. Her BP is 158/102 mmHg.
Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Offer a dark, quiet room and acetaminophen
B. Notify the provider immediately and obtain a urine protein dipstick
C. Re-check BP in 15 minutes while client rests on left side
D. Start an IV of normal saline at 125 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Headache, visual changes, epigastric pain, and BPs ≥ 160/110 signal
possible severe pre-eclampsia—an acute maternal/fetal safety risk requiring rapid
evaluation (labs, possible magnesium sulfate, delivery planning). Option A delays urgent
intervention, C treats this as routine gestational hypertension, and D initiates treatment
without orders.
Q2: A client at 28 weeks reports sudden, painless vaginal bleeding that stopped after 10
minutes. FHR is 150 bpm with moderate variability. Which finding requires IMMEDIATE
intervention?
A. Fundal height 30 cm
,B. BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm
C. FHR 145 bpm with accelerations
D. Small amount of old blood on perineal pad
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension + tachycardia suggests significant hemorrhage and possible
hypovolemic shock (ABCs). A is within normal limits, C is reassuring fetal status, and D
describes old (clotted) bleeding, not active hemorrhage.
Q3: A G1P0 client at 18 weeks has a 1-hour GTT result of 185 mg/dL. Which instruction
is MOST appropriate?
A. Schedule a 3-hour GTT
B. Begin diabetic teaching and nutritional counseling
C. Start bedtime NPH insulin tonight
D. Reassure that this is a normal result
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 1-hour GTT ≥ 180 mg/dL diagnoses gestational diabetes; initial management
is nutrition/diabetic education and glucose monitoring. A is unnecessary after
diagnostic threshold, C is premature without nutritional trial, and D is inaccurate.
Q4: A client at 20 weeks reports constant right-lower abdominal pain and shoulder pain.
She has a history of ectopic pregnancy. VS: BP 100/60, HR 110, RR 24. Which action is
PRIORITY?
A. Offer oral analgesia
B. Notify provider STAT and prepare for possible surgical evaluation
, C. Position on left side and monitor FHR
D. Start IV hydration at 150 mL/hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shoulder pain, unilateral abdominal pain, and tachycardia are red flags for
ruptured ectopic or abruption—life-threatening (circulation/safety). A masks symptoms,
C is supportive but not urgent, and D delays necessary OB/GYN assessment.
Q5: A client at 32 weeks is Rh-negative, antibody-negative, and experiences abdominal
trauma in a minor MVC. Which order should the nurse anticipate FIRST?
A. 300 mcg RhoGAM IM within 72 hours
B. Kleihauer-Betke test; give RhoGAM within 72 hours if indicated
C. Immediate cesarean section
D. Non-stress test in 1 week
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: KB quantifies feto-maternal bleed to determine RhoGAM dose (standard is
300 mcg within 72 h, but KB may increase dose). A gives standard dose without
quantification, C is not indicated for minor trauma without maternal/fetal compromise,
and D delays necessary fetal-maternal testing.
Q6: A client at 10 weeks reports severe nausea and vomiting, unable to keep fluids
down for 24 hours. Urine ketones 2+. Which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. Weight loss of 1 lb since last visit
B. Pulse 112 bpm, BP 90/50 mmHg, dry mucous membranes
C. Serum Hgb 11.5 g/dL
