HESI RN Exit Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 |
Questions with Verified Answers | 100% Correct |
Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Fundamentals & Safe Care
Q1: A 72-year-old post-operative client has a respiratory rate of 28/min, shallow
breathing, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid
B. Elevate the head of the bed and encourage coughing
C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
D. Document findings and recheck in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ABC framework places airway/oxygenation as the first priority. The
client's SaO₂ of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate oxygen. Elevating the
head of the bed (B) helps but does not correct hypoxemia as quickly as oxygen.
Administering an opioid (A) could further depress respirations. Documentation (D) is
necessary but not the first life-saving step.
Q2: During central-line dressing change, the nurse notes redness and tenderness at the
insertion site. The client's temperature is 38.2 °C. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Remove the central line immediately
,B. Obtain blood cultures from the line and a peripheral site
C. Apply a warm compress to the site
D. Document and continue the scheduled dressing change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current infection-control guidelines require cultures from both the line and
periphery before antibiotics to guide treatment and confirm line-related infection.
Immediate removal (A) is premature without cultures or physician order. Warm
compress (C) is symptomatic; documentation (D) alone delays necessary intervention.
Q3: A client on contact precautions for MRSA asks to leave the room to smoke. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Allow the patient to go if they wear a mask
B. Explain that they must remain in the room and offer nicotine gum
C. Permit short hallway walks with gloves on
D. Discharge the patient AMA if they insist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions prohibit leaving the room to prevent pathogen spread.
Offering nicotine gum respects autonomy while maintaining safety. Allowing masked
hallway walks (A) still risks environmental contamination. Discharging AMA (D) is an
extreme reaction before less restrictive alternatives.
Q4: A nurse discovers a medication error: a beta-blocker was administered to the wrong
client. The client's BP is 94/60 mm Hg, HR 52 bpm, and he is asymptomatic. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Complete an incident report after the shift
,B. Notify the provider and monitor vital signs q15 min
C. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV
D. Encourage oral fluids and place supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The provider must be informed immediately for orders and evaluation, and
monitoring detects deterioration. Incident reports (A) are important but secondary to
client safety. Atropine (C) is not indicated for asymptomatic mild bradycardia.
Fluids/supine position (D) helps hypotension but does not address potential further
bradycardia.
Q5: The nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Measuring intake and output on a stable post-op client
B. Assessing pain in a client receiving PCA
C. Teaching wound-care techniques to a family member
D. Performing a sterile dressing change
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measuring I&O is a standard, non-invasive task appropriate for UAPs.
Assessment (B), teaching (C), and sterile procedures (D) require licensed-nurse
judgment and accountability.
Q6: A client returns from surgery with a PCA pump. The nurse notes respirations 8/min
and the client is difficult to arouse. What is the immediate action?
A. Apply oxygen and call the Rapid Response Team
B. Document findings and continue hourly rounds
, C. Push the PCA button to deliver the next dose
D. Turn off the PCA pump and stay with the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Turning off the pump stops further opioid delivery; staying maintains
observation until help arrives. Rapid Response (A) is next, but stopping the drug is first.
Continuing rounds (B) or pushing the button (C) would worsen respiratory depression.
Q7: A newly admitted client has a Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse finds the
client unresponsive and not breathing. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Begin CPR and call for help
B. Check the order, verify identity, and initiate comfort measures
C. Call 911 immediately
D. Start chest compressions while verifying the order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DNR order must be honored once verified; initial assessment confirms
identity and allows transition to comfort care. Starting CPR (A, D) violates the client's
wishes. Calling 911 (C) may trigger unwanted resuscitation.
Q8: A nurse is preparing insulin for a client with brittle diabetes. Before administration,
the client states, "I already had my insulin." What is the best response?
A. Give the insulin—patients often forget
B. Hold the dose, verify the MAR, and reassess the patient
C. Document the refusal and leave the room
D. Call the physician immediately
Questions with Verified Answers | 100% Correct |
Pass Guaranteed
SECTION 1: Fundamentals & Safe Care
Q1: A 72-year-old post-operative client has a respiratory rate of 28/min, shallow
breathing, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer the prescribed PRN opioid
B. Elevate the head of the bed and encourage coughing
C. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
D. Document findings and recheck in 30 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ABC framework places airway/oxygenation as the first priority. The
client's SaO₂ of 88% indicates hypoxemia requiring immediate oxygen. Elevating the
head of the bed (B) helps but does not correct hypoxemia as quickly as oxygen.
Administering an opioid (A) could further depress respirations. Documentation (D) is
necessary but not the first life-saving step.
Q2: During central-line dressing change, the nurse notes redness and tenderness at the
insertion site. The client's temperature is 38.2 °C. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Remove the central line immediately
,B. Obtain blood cultures from the line and a peripheral site
C. Apply a warm compress to the site
D. Document and continue the scheduled dressing change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current infection-control guidelines require cultures from both the line and
periphery before antibiotics to guide treatment and confirm line-related infection.
Immediate removal (A) is premature without cultures or physician order. Warm
compress (C) is symptomatic; documentation (D) alone delays necessary intervention.
Q3: A client on contact precautions for MRSA asks to leave the room to smoke. Which
response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Allow the patient to go if they wear a mask
B. Explain that they must remain in the room and offer nicotine gum
C. Permit short hallway walks with gloves on
D. Discharge the patient AMA if they insist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions prohibit leaving the room to prevent pathogen spread.
Offering nicotine gum respects autonomy while maintaining safety. Allowing masked
hallway walks (A) still risks environmental contamination. Discharging AMA (D) is an
extreme reaction before less restrictive alternatives.
Q4: A nurse discovers a medication error: a beta-blocker was administered to the wrong
client. The client's BP is 94/60 mm Hg, HR 52 bpm, and he is asymptomatic. What is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Complete an incident report after the shift
,B. Notify the provider and monitor vital signs q15 min
C. Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV
D. Encourage oral fluids and place supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The provider must be informed immediately for orders and evaluation, and
monitoring detects deterioration. Incident reports (A) are important but secondary to
client safety. Atropine (C) is not indicated for asymptomatic mild bradycardia.
Fluids/supine position (D) helps hypotension but does not address potential further
bradycardia.
Q5: The nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which
task is most appropriate to delegate?
A. Measuring intake and output on a stable post-op client
B. Assessing pain in a client receiving PCA
C. Teaching wound-care techniques to a family member
D. Performing a sterile dressing change
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Measuring I&O is a standard, non-invasive task appropriate for UAPs.
Assessment (B), teaching (C), and sterile procedures (D) require licensed-nurse
judgment and accountability.
Q6: A client returns from surgery with a PCA pump. The nurse notes respirations 8/min
and the client is difficult to arouse. What is the immediate action?
A. Apply oxygen and call the Rapid Response Team
B. Document findings and continue hourly rounds
, C. Push the PCA button to deliver the next dose
D. Turn off the PCA pump and stay with the client
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Turning off the pump stops further opioid delivery; staying maintains
observation until help arrives. Rapid Response (A) is next, but stopping the drug is first.
Continuing rounds (B) or pushing the button (C) would worsen respiratory depression.
Q7: A newly admitted client has a Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse finds the
client unresponsive and not breathing. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Begin CPR and call for help
B. Check the order, verify identity, and initiate comfort measures
C. Call 911 immediately
D. Start chest compressions while verifying the order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DNR order must be honored once verified; initial assessment confirms
identity and allows transition to comfort care. Starting CPR (A, D) violates the client's
wishes. Calling 911 (C) may trigger unwanted resuscitation.
Q8: A nurse is preparing insulin for a client with brittle diabetes. Before administration,
the client states, "I already had my insulin." What is the best response?
A. Give the insulin—patients often forget
B. Hold the dose, verify the MAR, and reassess the patient
C. Document the refusal and leave the room
D. Call the physician immediately
