NURS 370 Pharmacology – Practice Questions
& Answers, Drug Therapy Review & Exam Prep
(Updated Edition)
Design Description:
A focused design with a nurse in scrubs, holding
a stethoscope and a medicine bottle. The
background features a pharmacy setup with
drug charts and a drug reference book. A
banner promotes "Updated Edition" in bold
text, ensuring that students are prepared for
the latest exam content. The blue tones of the
background provide a professional and
academic feel.
NURS 370 Pharmacology – Practice Questions & Answers
Drug Therapy Review & Exam Prep (Updated Edition)
Unit 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Q1: The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from its site of administration is:
A. Metabolism
B. Excretion
C. Distribution
D. Absorption ✓
,Rationale: Absorption is the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the
systemic circulation.
Q2: The primary organ for drug metabolism is the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver ✓
C. Lung
D. Stomach
Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism (biotransformation) via the
cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
Q3: The study of what the drug does to the body, including therapeutic and adverse effects, is
called:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics ✓
C. Pharmacogenetics
D. Pharmacotherapeutics
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and
their mechanisms of action.
Q4: A drug with a high therapeutic index is generally considered:
A. More dangerous
B. Safer ✓
C. Less effective
D. More potent
Rationale: Therapeutic Index (TI) is the ratio of the toxic dose to the effective dose. A high TI
indicates a wide margin of safety.
Q5: The first-pass effect primarily affects drugs administered by which route?
A. Intravenous
B. Oral ✓
C. Sublingual
D. Transdermal
Rationale: Orally administered drugs are absorbed via the portal circulation and must pass
through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, where they may be extensively
metabolized (first-pass effect).
Unit 2: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Pharmacology
,Q6: A patient receiving a non-selective beta-blocker like propranolol is at risk for:
A. Tachycardia
B. Bronchoconstriction ✓
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia unawareness
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers (β1 & β2) block bronchial β2 receptors, which can cause
bronchoconstriction, especially dangerous for asthmatic patients.
Q7: Which drug is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist used to treat conditions like urinary
retention?
A. Atropine
B. Bethanechol ✓
C. Neostigmine
D. Tropicamide
Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction and is
used for postoperative urinary retention.
Q8: The preferred drug for an acute hypertensive emergency is often:
A. Lisinopril (oral ACE-I)
B. Hydrochlorothiazide (oral diuretic)
C. Nitroprusside (IV vasodilator) ✓
D. Metoprolol (oral beta-blocker)
Rationale: Nitroprusside is a potent, rapid-acting IV vasodilator used for immediate blood
pressure control in hypertensive crises.
Q9: Atropine, an anticholinergic, is used to treat bradycardia because it:
A. Blocks nicotinic receptors
B. Blocks muscarinic receptors, increasing heart rate ✓
C. Stimulates beta-1 receptors
D. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
Rationale: Atropine is a competitive antagonist at cardiac muscarinic (M2) receptors, blocking
vagal tone and allowing the SA node to increase heart rate.
Q10: A classic sign of cholinergic crisis (overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) is:
A. Dry mouth
B. Urinary retention
C. Salivation, lacrimation, and diarrhea ✓
D. Tachycardia
, Rationale: Excessive cholinergic stimulation leads to the "SLUDGE" syndrome: Salivation,
Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, GI upset, Emesis.
Unit 3: Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology
Q11: A major concern when administering a loop diuretic like furosemide is:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Ototoxicity and hypokalemia ✓
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Rationale: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-2Cl transporter in the ascending loop of Henle,
leading to significant potassium loss (hypokalemia) and a risk of dose-related hearing damage
(ototoxicity).
Q12: Which drug class is considered first-line for uncomplicated hypertension in many
patients according to JNC-8 guidelines?
A. Alpha-blockers
B. ACE Inhibitors
C. Thiazide diuretics ✓
D. Vasodilators
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics (e.g., HCTZ) are often recommended as initial therapy for
hypertension due to proven efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and good tolerability.
Q13: A patient on heparin therapy should be monitored via which laboratory test?
A. INR
B. aPTT ✓
C. Platelet count only
D. Bleeding time
Rationale: Heparin's anticoagulant effect is monitored by the activated Partial Thromboplastin
Time (aPTT). The INR is used for warfarin monitoring.
Q14: The mechanism of action of statins (e.g., atorvastatin) is:
A. Inhibition of ACE
B. Blockade of calcium channels
C. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase ✓
D. Enhancement of cholesterol absorption
Rationale: Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic
cholesterol synthesis, lowering LDL cholesterol.
& Answers, Drug Therapy Review & Exam Prep
(Updated Edition)
Design Description:
A focused design with a nurse in scrubs, holding
a stethoscope and a medicine bottle. The
background features a pharmacy setup with
drug charts and a drug reference book. A
banner promotes "Updated Edition" in bold
text, ensuring that students are prepared for
the latest exam content. The blue tones of the
background provide a professional and
academic feel.
NURS 370 Pharmacology – Practice Questions & Answers
Drug Therapy Review & Exam Prep (Updated Edition)
Unit 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Q1: The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from its site of administration is:
A. Metabolism
B. Excretion
C. Distribution
D. Absorption ✓
,Rationale: Absorption is the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the
systemic circulation.
Q2: The primary organ for drug metabolism is the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver ✓
C. Lung
D. Stomach
Rationale: The liver is the major site of drug metabolism (biotransformation) via the
cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
Q3: The study of what the drug does to the body, including therapeutic and adverse effects, is
called:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics ✓
C. Pharmacogenetics
D. Pharmacotherapeutics
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics describes the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and
their mechanisms of action.
Q4: A drug with a high therapeutic index is generally considered:
A. More dangerous
B. Safer ✓
C. Less effective
D. More potent
Rationale: Therapeutic Index (TI) is the ratio of the toxic dose to the effective dose. A high TI
indicates a wide margin of safety.
Q5: The first-pass effect primarily affects drugs administered by which route?
A. Intravenous
B. Oral ✓
C. Sublingual
D. Transdermal
Rationale: Orally administered drugs are absorbed via the portal circulation and must pass
through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, where they may be extensively
metabolized (first-pass effect).
Unit 2: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Pharmacology
,Q6: A patient receiving a non-selective beta-blocker like propranolol is at risk for:
A. Tachycardia
B. Bronchoconstriction ✓
C. Hypertension
D. Hypoglycemia unawareness
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers (β1 & β2) block bronchial β2 receptors, which can cause
bronchoconstriction, especially dangerous for asthmatic patients.
Q7: Which drug is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist used to treat conditions like urinary
retention?
A. Atropine
B. Bethanechol ✓
C. Neostigmine
D. Tropicamide
Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction and is
used for postoperative urinary retention.
Q8: The preferred drug for an acute hypertensive emergency is often:
A. Lisinopril (oral ACE-I)
B. Hydrochlorothiazide (oral diuretic)
C. Nitroprusside (IV vasodilator) ✓
D. Metoprolol (oral beta-blocker)
Rationale: Nitroprusside is a potent, rapid-acting IV vasodilator used for immediate blood
pressure control in hypertensive crises.
Q9: Atropine, an anticholinergic, is used to treat bradycardia because it:
A. Blocks nicotinic receptors
B. Blocks muscarinic receptors, increasing heart rate ✓
C. Stimulates beta-1 receptors
D. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
Rationale: Atropine is a competitive antagonist at cardiac muscarinic (M2) receptors, blocking
vagal tone and allowing the SA node to increase heart rate.
Q10: A classic sign of cholinergic crisis (overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) is:
A. Dry mouth
B. Urinary retention
C. Salivation, lacrimation, and diarrhea ✓
D. Tachycardia
, Rationale: Excessive cholinergic stimulation leads to the "SLUDGE" syndrome: Salivation,
Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, GI upset, Emesis.
Unit 3: Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology
Q11: A major concern when administering a loop diuretic like furosemide is:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Ototoxicity and hypokalemia ✓
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Rationale: Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-2Cl transporter in the ascending loop of Henle,
leading to significant potassium loss (hypokalemia) and a risk of dose-related hearing damage
(ototoxicity).
Q12: Which drug class is considered first-line for uncomplicated hypertension in many
patients according to JNC-8 guidelines?
A. Alpha-blockers
B. ACE Inhibitors
C. Thiazide diuretics ✓
D. Vasodilators
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics (e.g., HCTZ) are often recommended as initial therapy for
hypertension due to proven efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and good tolerability.
Q13: A patient on heparin therapy should be monitored via which laboratory test?
A. INR
B. aPTT ✓
C. Platelet count only
D. Bleeding time
Rationale: Heparin's anticoagulant effect is monitored by the activated Partial Thromboplastin
Time (aPTT). The INR is used for warfarin monitoring.
Q14: The mechanism of action of statins (e.g., atorvastatin) is:
A. Inhibition of ACE
B. Blockade of calcium channels
C. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase ✓
D. Enhancement of cholesterol absorption
Rationale: Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic
cholesterol synthesis, lowering LDL cholesterol.
