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NR 602/ NR6
NR 602/ NR602 FINAL Exam: (Latest 2026/
2027) Primary Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family Practicum | Q/A | Grade
A| (Verified Answers) -Chamberlain
Subject: Women's Health & Primary Care Management
Source: NR602 Final Exam Review (Chamberlain University)
Format: Question and Answer Review Sheet with Rationales, Key
Definitions, and Diagnostic Criteria
Description: This document is a comprehensive final exam review for a
Women's Health and Primary Care course (NR602). It is formatted as a
series of multiple-choice practice questions, extended answer lists, and
detailed clinical information.
Final Exam Review Questions & Answers
1. Which one best describes lesions associated with
condyloma acuminatum?
Answer: a. Verruciform
Rationale: Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts) caused by HPV
NR 602/ NR6
, 2
NR 602/ NR6
typically present as soft, fleshy, cauliflower-like (verruciform)
growths on the genital and perianal areas.
2. A 39-year-old female completes a course of amoxicillin for
strep throat. On exam: erythema of external genitalia with small
amount of white discharge. Wet prep reveals few clue cells, but
many budding hyphae. No WBCs. What is the most appropriate
treatment?
Answer: c. Fluconazole tabs 150 mg x1 dose
Rationale: The presence of budding hyphae on KOH/wet prep is
diagnostic of vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC). A recent antibiotic
course is a common trigger. A single oral dose of fluconazole is first-
line treatment for uncomplicated VVC.
3. A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge.
She is in good health except for a recent strep throat. Pelvic exam
reveals tender vulvovaginal area with edema and
nonmalodorous white patches. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: d. Candidiasis
Rationale: Pruritus, a "cottage-cheese" discharge, and recent
antibiotic use (for strep) are classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis
(VVC). The lack of odor helps differentiate it from BV or
trichomoniasis.
NR 602/ NR6
, 3
NR 602/ NR6
4. An 18-year-old female with secondary amenorrhea
(normal secondary sex characteristics, normal genitalia,
pregnancy ruled out). What would necessitate further
evaluation?
Answer: c. Galactorrhea
Rationale: Galactorrhea in the setting of amenorrhea suggests
hyperprolactinemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma
(prolactinoma) or other conditions requiring investigation (e.g.,
thyroid dysfunction, medications).
5. A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with primary
dysmenorrhea. Which medication would be used as first-line to
help control symptoms?
Answer: d. NSAIDs
Rationale: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen) are first-line therapy
for primary dysmenorrhea. They work by inhibiting prostaglandin
synthesis, which is the primary cause of uterine cramping and pain.
6. Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
Answer: c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13-year-old
Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of
menarche by age 15 in the presence of normal secondary sexual
NR 602/ NR6
NR 602/ NR6
NR 602/ NR602 FINAL Exam: (Latest 2026/
2027) Primary Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family Practicum | Q/A | Grade
A| (Verified Answers) -Chamberlain
Subject: Women's Health & Primary Care Management
Source: NR602 Final Exam Review (Chamberlain University)
Format: Question and Answer Review Sheet with Rationales, Key
Definitions, and Diagnostic Criteria
Description: This document is a comprehensive final exam review for a
Women's Health and Primary Care course (NR602). It is formatted as a
series of multiple-choice practice questions, extended answer lists, and
detailed clinical information.
Final Exam Review Questions & Answers
1. Which one best describes lesions associated with
condyloma acuminatum?
Answer: a. Verruciform
Rationale: Condyloma acuminatum (genital warts) caused by HPV
NR 602/ NR6
, 2
NR 602/ NR6
typically present as soft, fleshy, cauliflower-like (verruciform)
growths on the genital and perianal areas.
2. A 39-year-old female completes a course of amoxicillin for
strep throat. On exam: erythema of external genitalia with small
amount of white discharge. Wet prep reveals few clue cells, but
many budding hyphae. No WBCs. What is the most appropriate
treatment?
Answer: c. Fluconazole tabs 150 mg x1 dose
Rationale: The presence of budding hyphae on KOH/wet prep is
diagnostic of vulvovaginal candidiasis (VVC). A recent antibiotic
course is a common trigger. A single oral dose of fluconazole is first-
line treatment for uncomplicated VVC.
3. A woman complains of vaginal itching and white discharge.
She is in good health except for a recent strep throat. Pelvic exam
reveals tender vulvovaginal area with edema and
nonmalodorous white patches. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: d. Candidiasis
Rationale: Pruritus, a "cottage-cheese" discharge, and recent
antibiotic use (for strep) are classic for vulvovaginal candidiasis
(VVC). The lack of odor helps differentiate it from BV or
trichomoniasis.
NR 602/ NR6
, 3
NR 602/ NR6
4. An 18-year-old female with secondary amenorrhea
(normal secondary sex characteristics, normal genitalia,
pregnancy ruled out). What would necessitate further
evaluation?
Answer: c. Galactorrhea
Rationale: Galactorrhea in the setting of amenorrhea suggests
hyperprolactinemia, which can be caused by a pituitary adenoma
(prolactinoma) or other conditions requiring investigation (e.g.,
thyroid dysfunction, medications).
5. A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with primary
dysmenorrhea. Which medication would be used as first-line to
help control symptoms?
Answer: d. NSAIDs
Rationale: NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen) are first-line therapy
for primary dysmenorrhea. They work by inhibiting prostaglandin
synthesis, which is the primary cause of uterine cramping and pain.
6. Primary amenorrhea is best described as:
Answer: c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13-year-old
Rationale: Primary amenorrhea is defined as the absence of
menarche by age 15 in the presence of normal secondary sexual
NR 602/ NR6
