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NR 602/ NR602
NR 602/ NR602 FINAL Exam:(2026/ 2027)
Primary Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family Practicum | Q/A|
(Verified Answers) -Chamberlain
Subject: Primary Care of the Childbearing & Child/Family
Source: NR 602 Final Exam (Chamberlain University)
Format: Multiple-choice practice questions with correct answers and
rationales.
NR 602 Final Exam Review – Questions & Rationales
1. A school-age child has a 3-month history of dull, aching
epigastric pain that worsens with eating and awakens the child
from sleep. A complete blood count shows a hemoglobin of 8
mg/dL. What is the next step in management?
o Answer: d. Referral for esophagogastroduodenoscopy
(EGD)
o Rationale: Chronic epigastric pain with anemia suggests
possible peptic ulcer disease or other significant
NR 602/ NR602
, 2
NR 602/ NR602
gastrointestinal pathology. EGD is the diagnostic standard for
visualizing the upper GI tract, assessing for ulcers,
inflammation, or bleeding sources, and allowing for biopsy if
needed.
2. A child is in the clinic after swallowing a metal bead. A
radiograph of the GI tract shows a 6 mm cylindrical object in the
child's stomach. The child is able to swallow without difficulty
and is not experiencing pain. What is the correct course of
treatment?
o Answer: b. Have the parents watch for the object in the
child's stool
o Rationale: Small, blunt objects that have passed into the
stomach and are not causing symptoms can typically be
managed expectantly. Most will pass spontaneously through
the GI tract without intervention.
3. A 10-year-old child has had abdominal pain for 2 days,
which began in the periumbilical area and then localized to the
right lower quadrant. The child vomited once today and then
experienced relief from pain followed by an increased fever.
What is the likely diagnosis?
o Answer: a. Appendicitis with perforation
NR 602/ NR602
, 3
NR 602/ NR602
o Rationale: Migration of pain to the RLQ, followed by
temporary pain relief (due to perforation and release of
pressure), and then fever is classic for perforated appendicitis.
4. An 18-month-old child has a 1-day history of intermittent,
cramping abdominal pain with non-billous vomiting. The child is
observed to scream and draw up his legs during pain episodes
and becomes lethargic in between. The primary care pediatric
nurse practitioner notes a small amount of bloody, mucous stool
in the diaper. What is the most likely diagnosis?
o Answer: c. Intussusception
o Rationale: The classic triad for intussusception includes
intermittent, severe abdominal pain (drawing up legs),
vomiting, and “currant jelly” stools (blood and mucus).
Lethargy is also a common associated symptom.
5. A 12-month-old infant exhibits poor weight gain after
previously normal growth patterns. There is no history of
vomiting, diarrhea, or irregular bowel movements, and the
physical exam is normal. What is the next step in evaluating
these findings?
o Answer: b. Feeding and stooling history and 3-day diet
history
NR 602/ NR602
NR 602/ NR602
NR 602/ NR602 FINAL Exam:(2026/ 2027)
Primary Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family Practicum | Q/A|
(Verified Answers) -Chamberlain
Subject: Primary Care of the Childbearing & Child/Family
Source: NR 602 Final Exam (Chamberlain University)
Format: Multiple-choice practice questions with correct answers and
rationales.
NR 602 Final Exam Review – Questions & Rationales
1. A school-age child has a 3-month history of dull, aching
epigastric pain that worsens with eating and awakens the child
from sleep. A complete blood count shows a hemoglobin of 8
mg/dL. What is the next step in management?
o Answer: d. Referral for esophagogastroduodenoscopy
(EGD)
o Rationale: Chronic epigastric pain with anemia suggests
possible peptic ulcer disease or other significant
NR 602/ NR602
, 2
NR 602/ NR602
gastrointestinal pathology. EGD is the diagnostic standard for
visualizing the upper GI tract, assessing for ulcers,
inflammation, or bleeding sources, and allowing for biopsy if
needed.
2. A child is in the clinic after swallowing a metal bead. A
radiograph of the GI tract shows a 6 mm cylindrical object in the
child's stomach. The child is able to swallow without difficulty
and is not experiencing pain. What is the correct course of
treatment?
o Answer: b. Have the parents watch for the object in the
child's stool
o Rationale: Small, blunt objects that have passed into the
stomach and are not causing symptoms can typically be
managed expectantly. Most will pass spontaneously through
the GI tract without intervention.
3. A 10-year-old child has had abdominal pain for 2 days,
which began in the periumbilical area and then localized to the
right lower quadrant. The child vomited once today and then
experienced relief from pain followed by an increased fever.
What is the likely diagnosis?
o Answer: a. Appendicitis with perforation
NR 602/ NR602
, 3
NR 602/ NR602
o Rationale: Migration of pain to the RLQ, followed by
temporary pain relief (due to perforation and release of
pressure), and then fever is classic for perforated appendicitis.
4. An 18-month-old child has a 1-day history of intermittent,
cramping abdominal pain with non-billous vomiting. The child is
observed to scream and draw up his legs during pain episodes
and becomes lethargic in between. The primary care pediatric
nurse practitioner notes a small amount of bloody, mucous stool
in the diaper. What is the most likely diagnosis?
o Answer: c. Intussusception
o Rationale: The classic triad for intussusception includes
intermittent, severe abdominal pain (drawing up legs),
vomiting, and “currant jelly” stools (blood and mucus).
Lethargy is also a common associated symptom.
5. A 12-month-old infant exhibits poor weight gain after
previously normal growth patterns. There is no history of
vomiting, diarrhea, or irregular bowel movements, and the
physical exam is normal. What is the next step in evaluating
these findings?
o Answer: b. Feeding and stooling history and 3-day diet
history
NR 602/ NR602
