WGU D120 EXAM 2025/2026 QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS 100% PASS.
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her vulva. On exam, the vulva is
edematous and excoriated. The FNP performs a wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It
reveals pseudohyphae and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient? - ANS vulvovaginal
candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium hydroxide are diagnostic for
candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal area. This is the first time
this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on
the wet mount. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANS trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam. She has never been
sexually active. Her family history and past medical history are negative for any gynecologic
diseases. Her menses occur every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which tests? - ANS Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap smears is at the age of 21, regardless
of sexual activity history. STD screening is not necessary as the patient is not sexually active.
Hemoccult and mammogram are not recommended for this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and heavy white discharge. The
patient denies a history of sexual activity. On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and
white patches on the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the FNP
suspect in the patient's history? - ANS recent antibiotic use;
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The majority of women who develop
this infection have recently taken antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She was last seen 2 weeks
ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x
10days. She completed her medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and thick
white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such intense itching. She is in a
mutually monogamous relationship. Her LMP was 2 weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy.
Wet mount shows negative whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive hyphae,
positive spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is leaving tomorrow for a week long
cruise. She is not taking any medications and has no known drug allergies. The FNP should
prescribe which of the following? - ANS fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis. It is the most convenient treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be
compliant with vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge, which is white
and watery. She douches with vinegar and water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for
contraception and has been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms for
STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted changes in her normal
menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count,
no lactobacilli, no hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this patient? -
ANS bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel 1 applicator HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis in the non-pregnant
female. The presence of clue cells, and the associated malodorous discharge and absence of
lactobacilli are markers for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the FNP. She is breastfeeding
without difficulty and plans to continue for a year. She wants to begin using contraception and
plans no further pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for this
patient? - ANS Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding mothers because of the effect of
estrogen on milk supply. Progestin only OCs, IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable methods of
contraception for breastfeeding mothers.
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
, Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the FNP? - ANS Based on
USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests should be performed on female patients aged 21 and older,
regardless of sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix? - ANS Small, yellow,
raised round area on the cervix.;
A nabothian cyst is a small, white or yellow, raised round area on the cervix and is considered to
be a normal variant.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 28-year-old patient recently seen for a pap smear.
Classification is high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, endocervical cells seen, and
adequate smear. The FNP phones the patient and tells her which of the following? - ANS Your
pap smear shows abnormal tissue that needs to be evaluated. Please schedule an appointment
for a colposcopy.;
The pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer and precancerous states. The diagnostic
test needed to confirm the diagnosis of a high-grade lesion is a colposcopy with guided biopsies.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 61-year-old patient recently seen for a pap smear.
Results are: atrophic changes, scent endocervical cells, and adequate smear. She has been
treated for breast cancer with mastectomy and tamoxifen. She has never received hormone
replacement therapy. What is appropriate for the FNP to tell the patient? - ANS Your pap
smear is normal but shows some mild thinning of the tissue. This is to be expected in someone
who is postmenopausal and not on hormones. It does not pose a threat to your health. Please
return to the office in 1 year for your annual exam or sooner if needed.;
Atrophic changes on the cervix of a postmenopausal woman are to be expected, as is the
paucity of endocervical cells. Because of her past medical history, she is not a candidate for HRT,
and the pap smear results are not abnormal.
An adult patients LMP was 2 months ago. She has had and IUD in place for the last 4 months.
She is complaining of nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and abdominal bloating. Physical exam
reveals the following: Abdomen- no abnormalities noted; Pelvic- cervix with positive Chadwick's
sign, IUD strings protruding from cervix; Uterus- enlarged and non-tender; Adnexa- non-tender,
without masses and no CMT. What would be the likely diagnosis? - ANS pregnancy
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
AND ANSWERS 100% PASS.
A young woman is complaining of tenderness and burning of her vulva. On exam, the vulva is
edematous and excoriated. The FNP performs a wet mount preparation of vaginal secretions. It
reveals pseudohyphae and spores. What is the diagnosis for this patient? - ANS vulvovaginal
candidiasis;
Pseudohyphae and spores on the wet mount with potassium hydroxide are diagnostic for
candida infection.
A young woman presents with complaints of irritation in the vaginal area. This is the first time
this has occurred. On exam, the cervix is inflamed and friable. Flagellated protozoa are seen on
the wet mount. What is the most likely diagnosis? - ANS trichomoniasis;
Flagellated protozoan confirms the diagnosis of trichomoniasis.
A 21-year-old female patient presents for her first well-woman exam. She has never been
sexually active. Her family history and past medical history are negative for any gynecologic
diseases. Her menses occur every 28 days, lasting 5 days, with a relatively moderate flow and no
significant dysmenorrhea. Her physical exam should include which tests? - ANS Pap smear;
The recommended age for females to begin screening pap smears is at the age of 21, regardless
of sexual activity history. STD screening is not necessary as the patient is not sexually active.
Hemoccult and mammogram are not recommended for this age group of patient.
A young adult patient presents with a history of vaginal itching and heavy white discharge. The
patient denies a history of sexual activity. On exam, the FNP finds a red, edematous vulva and
white patches on the vaginal walls. The discharge has no odor. What finding would the FNP
suspect in the patient's history? - ANS recent antibiotic use;
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,Almost half of all vaginal infections are caused by candida. The majority of women who develop
this infection have recently taken antibiotics.
A 46-year-old female patient is being seen in the clinic by the FNP. She was last seen 2 weeks
ago for an upper respiratory tract infection and was treated with amoxicillin 250mg PO TID x
10days. She completed her medication last week, but now complains of vaginal itching and thick
white discharge. She states that she has never experienced such intense itching. She is in a
mutually monogamous relationship. Her LMP was 2 weeks ago. Her partner had a vasectomy.
Wet mount shows negative whiff test, rare clue cells, positive lactobacilli, positive hyphae,
positive spores, few WBCs, and no trichomonads. She is leaving tomorrow for a week long
cruise. She is not taking any medications and has no known drug allergies. The FNP should
prescribe which of the following? - ANS fluconazole 150mg 1 tab PO x1 dose;
Fluconazole is approved for a single-dose oral treatment of uncomplicated vulvovaginal
candidiasis. It is the most convenient treatment for this patient who will is unlikely to be
compliant with vaginal creams given the upcoming travel.
A 25-year-old patient presents with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge, which is white
and watery. She douches with vinegar and water every 2 weeks. She uses a diaphragm for
contraception and has been sexually active with her boyfriend for two years, using condoms for
STD prevention. Her LMP was 1 week ago, and there are no noted changes in her normal
menstrual pattern. Her wet mount shows a positive whiff test, clue cells too numerous to count,
no lactobacilli, no hyphae, no spores. What is the diagnosis and treatment for this patient? -
ANS bacterial vaginosis: metronidazole vaginal gel 1 applicator HS x 5 days.;
Metronidazole vaginal gel is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis in the non-pregnant
female. The presence of clue cells, and the associated malodorous discharge and absence of
lactobacilli are markers for the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis.
A 41-year-old patient is seen for her 6-week postpartum exam by the FNP. She is breastfeeding
without difficulty and plans to continue for a year. She wants to begin using contraception and
plans no further pregnancies. Which of the following is not an appropriate choice for this
patient? - ANS Combination OC;
Combination OCs are not recommended for breastfeeding mothers because of the effect of
estrogen on milk supply. Progestin only OCs, IUDs, and Depo-Provera are acceptable methods of
contraception for breastfeeding mothers.
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
, Which two patients should have a Pap smear test performed by the FNP? - ANS Based on
USPSTF guidelines, pap smear tests should be performed on female patients aged 21 and older,
regardless of sexual activity.
What finding is considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix? - ANS Small, yellow,
raised round area on the cervix.;
A nabothian cyst is a small, white or yellow, raised round area on the cervix and is considered to
be a normal variant.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 28-year-old patient recently seen for a pap smear.
Classification is high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, endocervical cells seen, and
adequate smear. The FNP phones the patient and tells her which of the following? - ANS Your
pap smear shows abnormal tissue that needs to be evaluated. Please schedule an appointment
for a colposcopy.;
The pap smear is a screening test for cervical cancer and precancerous states. The diagnostic
test needed to confirm the diagnosis of a high-grade lesion is a colposcopy with guided biopsies.
The FNP is reviewing the lab results of a 61-year-old patient recently seen for a pap smear.
Results are: atrophic changes, scent endocervical cells, and adequate smear. She has been
treated for breast cancer with mastectomy and tamoxifen. She has never received hormone
replacement therapy. What is appropriate for the FNP to tell the patient? - ANS Your pap
smear is normal but shows some mild thinning of the tissue. This is to be expected in someone
who is postmenopausal and not on hormones. It does not pose a threat to your health. Please
return to the office in 1 year for your annual exam or sooner if needed.;
Atrophic changes on the cervix of a postmenopausal woman are to be expected, as is the
paucity of endocervical cells. Because of her past medical history, she is not a candidate for HRT,
and the pap smear results are not abnormal.
An adult patients LMP was 2 months ago. She has had and IUD in place for the last 4 months.
She is complaining of nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and abdominal bloating. Physical exam
reveals the following: Abdomen- no abnormalities noted; Pelvic- cervix with positive Chadwick's
sign, IUD strings protruding from cervix; Uterus- enlarged and non-tender; Adnexa- non-tender,
without masses and no CMT. What would be the likely diagnosis? - ANS pregnancy
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
