ATI comprehensive predictor (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor
1.
A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Oxygen saturation 91%
B. Barrel-shaped chest
C. Respiratory rate 10/min
D. Productive cough
Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates hypoventilation and possible respiratory
failure, which is an emergency.
2.
Which action should the nurse take first when a client reports chest pain?
A. Obtain a pain scale rating
B. Administer nitroglycerin
C. Apply oxygen
D. Assess vital signs
Answer: D
Rationale: Assessment comes first. Vital signs help determine severity and guide interventions.
3.
A client with diabetes reports shakiness and sweating. Which action is the priority?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose
C. Encourage exercise
D. Notify the provider
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Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of hypoglycemia. Blood glucose must be checked immediately.
4.
Which food should the nurse recommend for a client with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Apples
B. Milk
C. Spinach
D. White rice
Answer: C
Rationale: Spinach is high in iron and supports red blood cell production.
5.
A nurse is administering digoxin. Which finding requires the nurse to hold the medication?
A. Apical pulse 58/min
B. BP 128/76
C. Potassium 4.0
D. Respiratory rate 18
Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is below 60/min in adults.
6.
Which client is at highest risk for infection?
A. Client with hypertension
B. Client receiving chemotherapy
C. Client with osteoarthritis
D. Client with GERD
Answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy suppresses the immune system, increasing infection risk.
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7.
Which position is best for a client experiencing dyspnea?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. High-Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: C
Rationale: High-Fowler’s maximizes lung expansion and improves breathing.
8.
A client receiving IV morphine develops respiratory depression. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Epinephrine
D. Atropine
Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid effects, including respiratory depression.
9.
Which statement by a client indicates understanding of fall prevention?
A. “I’ll wear slippers at night.”
B. “I’ll call for help before getting up.”
C. “I’ll turn off the bed alarm.”
D. “I’ll keep the lights off.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Calling for assistance reduces fall risk.
10.
Which action should the nurse take when administering eye drops?
A. Apply drops to the inner canthus
B. Touch the dropper to the eye
C. Pull the lower lid down
D. Ask the client to blink rapidly
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Answer: C
Rationale: Pulling the lower lid creates a conjunctival sac for safe medication administration.
11.
Which sign indicates dehydration?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Moist mucous membranes
C. Decreased urine output
D. Weight gain
Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased urine output is a classic sign of dehydration.
12.
A client with heart failure has crackles in the lungs. Which medication should the nurse expect to
administer?
A. Morphine
B. Furosemide
C. Insulin
D. Acetaminophen
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload.
13.
Which task can the nurse delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering insulin
B. Assessing lung sounds
C. Taking vital signs on a stable client
D. Teaching medication use
Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs may collect routine data on stable clients.
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