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D115 Advanced Pathophysiology Practice ExamFor Nurse Practitioner /
Graduate-Level Students
Questions 1–100
1. A 58-year-old patient with chronic heart failure presents with shortness
of breath and edema. The NP notes jugular venous distension and an S3
heart sound. Which pathophysiologic mechanism is primarily responsible
for the patient’s symptoms?
A. Decreased preload
B. Increased afterload
C. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)
D. Decreased sympathetic nervous system activity
Answer: C
Rationale: In chronic heart failure, decreased cardiac output activates
the RAAS to retain sodium and water, increasing fluid volume, preload,
and congestion—leading to edema and jugular venous distension.
2. Which laboratory finding is most indicative of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
A. Elevated serum creatinine and decreased urine output
B. Decreased BUN with increased urine output
,C. Hypernatremia with polyuria
D. Low serum creatinine and oliguria
Answer: A
Rationale: AKI is characterized by a sudden rise in serum creatinine and
reduced urine output due to impaired renal filtration.
3. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect
should the NP monitor closely?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by
reducing aldosterone-mediated potassium excretion.
4. Which clinical finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Pulmonary congestion
D. Jugular venous distension
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading
to dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles, while right-sided failure leads to
systemic edema.
5. A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for
microvascular complications. Which assessment finding is most
consistent with diabetic nephropathy?
A. Proteinuria
B. Retinopathy
,C. Neuropathy
D. Peripheral arterial disease
Answer: A
Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is characterized by proteinuria (albumin
in the urine), which reflects kidney damage from chronic hyperglycemia.
6. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal
bone deformities?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin
Answer: C
Rationale: Tetracyclines like doxycycline can cause fetal bone and teeth
deformities and should be avoided in pregnancy.
7. A patient presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to the
back. Blood pressure is significantly different in each arm. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
Answer: C
Rationale: Aortic dissection presents with abrupt, severe chest/back pain
and asymmetric blood pressures due to involvement of the major aortic
branches.
8. Which mechanism explains how beta-blockers reduce blood pressure?
A. Vasodilation of arterioles
B. Inhibition of RAAS
, C. Decreased heart rate and contractility
D. Increased renal sodium excretion
Answer: C
Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility,
decreasing cardiac output and blood pressure.
9. A 42-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and spoon-shaped
nails. Lab results show low hemoglobin and low mean corpuscular
volume (MCV). What is the most likely cause?
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Folate deficiency
D. Hemolytic anemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic (low MCV) and often
presents with fatigue, pallor, and koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails).
10. Which principle is central to evidence-based practice (EBP) in
nursing?
A. Relying solely on clinical experience
B. Integrating research evidence, clinical expertise, and patient
preferences
C. Following hospital policies without deviation
D. Using only randomized controlled trials for all decisions
Answer: B
Rationale: EBP integrates current best research evidence, clinical
expertise, and patient values/preferences to guide decision-making.
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