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NR 511 Final Exam Study Guide
,NR511 FINAL EXAM TEST BANK
Q1. What does a positive Phalen's test typically indicate?
A. Pain in the elbow
B. Tingling and numbness in the first three fingers
C. Weak grip strength
D. Redness over the palm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A positive Phalen’s test produces numbness, tingling, or pain in the distribution of
the median nerve (thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger). This finding
is characteristic of carpal tunnel syndrome, caused by compression of the median
nerve at the wrist.
Tip:
Think “Phalen = Fingers numb.”
DIF: Analysis
OBJ: Identify clinical signs of carpal tunnel syndrome
TOP: Musculoskeletal / Peripheral Neuropathy / Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Q2. Which lab marker is commonly used to confirm Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?
A. TSH
B. Free T3
C. Anti-TPO antibodies
D. TBG
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies are the hallmark lab markers for
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, indicating autoimmune destruction of thyroid tissue.
,Elevated anti-TPO antibodies help confirm the diagnosis even if thyroid hormone
levels are normal or mildly abnormal.
Tip:
Remember “TPO = Thyroid Problem Origin.”
DIF: Analysis
OBJ: Interpret laboratory markers for autoimmune thyroid disease
TOP: Endocrine / Hypothyroidism / Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Q3. During a routine physical for a 5-year-old boy, you cannot retract the foreskin.
What is this
condition called?
A. Paraphimosis
B. Phimosis
C. Balanitis
D. Urethritis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans
penis, which is normal in young boys but may require monitoring if it persists or
causes symptoms. It differs from paraphimosis, where a retracted foreskin cannot
return to its normal position, causing pain and possible complications.
Tip:
Remember “Phimosis = Foreskin fixed.”
DIF: Analysis
OBJ: Recognize common pediatric urogenital conditions
TOP: Genitourinary / Pediatric Urology / Phimosis
, Q4. Sandra, a computer programmer, has just been diagnosed with carpal tunnel
syndrome. What
is your next best step?
A. Refer to a hand specialist
B. Conduct a full musculoskeletal history
C. Initiate neutral wrist splinting and NSAIDs
D. Order an EMG
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
First-line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome is usually conservative
management, including neutral wrist splinting (especially at night) and NSAIDs to
reduce inflammation and symptoms. Referral to a specialist or advanced testing
like EMG is reserved for persistent or severe cases.
Tip:
Think “Splint before specialist.”
DIF: Analysis
OBJ: Apply initial management principles for carpal tunnel syndrome
TOP: Musculoskeletal / Peripheral Neuropathy / Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Q5. A woman presents with lifelong heavy periods and hemoglobin of 11. Her
ferritin is low,
TIBC is high, and MCV is 75. What’s the likely cause?
A. Thalassemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease
Correct Answer: B