correct answers 2025-2026 Review
1. Which of the following best describes transformational leadership in nursing practice?
A. Delegating tasks with minimal supervision
B. Inspiring and motivating others to achieve beyond expectations
C. Strictly enforcing organizational policies
D. Maintaining stability and avoiding change
Rationale: Transformational leaders articulate a compelling vision, inspire staff to exceed
routine performance, and foster innovation. A is laissez-faire; C is transactional; D resists
change.
2. According to Lewin’s Change Theory, the first step in organizational change is:
A. Unfreezing
B. Moving
C. Refreezing
D. Evaluation
Rationale: Unfreezing creates awareness that the status quo is untenable. Moving introduces
new behaviors; Refreezing stabilizes change.
3. A nurse manager who uses autocratic leadership is most likely to:
A. Make decisions without staff input
B. Encourage team collaboration
C. Focus on servant leadership principles
D. Avoid responsibility for decisions
Rationale: Autocratic leaders centralize decisions; democratic leaders encourage collaboration,
servant leaders prioritize others’ needs, and laissez-faire leaders avoid decision-making.
4. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional intelligence?
A. Self-awareness
B. Self-regulation
C. Social awareness
D. Technical expertise
Rationale: EI includes self-awareness, self-regulation, social awareness, and relationship
management. Technical expertise is separate.
5. In shared governance, decision-making authority is:
A. Centralized with senior administrators
B. Decentralized to frontline staff
, C. Limited to nurse managers only
D. Outsourced to external consultants
Rationale: Shared governance empowers frontline clinicians; top-down models (A, C, D) limit
staff autonomy.
6. Which research design is considered the gold standard for testing interventions?
A. Case-control study
B. Cohort study
C. Randomized controlled trial (RCT)
D. Cross-sectional study
Rationale: RCTs use randomization and blinding to reduce bias; observational and descriptive
studies cannot establish causation as reliably.
7. A null hypothesis states that:
A. A relationship exists between two variables
B. No significant relationship exists between two variables
C. The research question is exploratory
D. The findings will always be positive
Rationale: The null assumes no effect; rejecting it supports the alternative.
8. Which sampling method gives every individual an equal chance of being selected?
A. Convenience sampling
B. Simple random sampling
C. Snowball sampling
D. Quota sampling
Rationale: Simple random sampling ensures equal probability; other methods are biased or
nonrandom.
9. Reliability in research refers to:
A. Consistency of results when repeated
B. Accuracy of measurement
C. Ability to generalize findings
D. Appropriateness of the research question
Rationale: Reliability = repeatability; validity = accuracy; generalizability = external validity.
10. Which statistical test is best for comparing means of two independent groups?
A. Chi-square test
B. Independent t-test
C. ANOVA
D. Correlation
,Rationale: Independent t-test compares two means; ANOVA compares three or more; chi-
square and correlation are for categorical or relational data.
11. A common challenge faced by nurses transitioning into advanced practice is:
A. Excessive confidence in decision-making
B. Role ambiguity and identity development
C. Lack of exposure to patient care
D. Overuse of technology
Rationale: Transitioning NPs often experience uncertainty integrating advanced responsibilities;
under confidence is more typical than overconfidence.
12. Professional autonomy for nurse practitioners primarily involves:
A. Following physician orders
B. Focusing only on bedside care
C. Making independent clinical decisions
D. Avoiding accountability for errors
Rationale: Autonomy = independent clinical judgment + accountability; A and B limit scope; D
misstates responsibility.
13. Which competency is part of the NONPF NP Core Competencies?
A. Financial auditing
B. Classroom teaching skills
C. Scientific foundation competence
D. Marketing skills
Rationale: NONPF emphasizes scientific foundations, leadership, quality, inquiry, and policy;
other options are peripheral.
14. A nurse practitioner prescribing medication must be aware of:
A. Organizational budgeting rules
B. Scope of practice and state regulations
C. Academic research design
D. Patient insurance policies only
Rationale: Prescriptive authority is state-regulated; legal compliance is critical.
15. Transition shock in advanced practice often includes:
A. Overconfidence in skills
B. Immediate mastery of advanced procedures
C. Feelings of incompetence and stress
D. A lack of patient interaction
Rationale: Transition shock = stress, imposter feelings, skill gap awareness.
, 16. Which leadership style best supports staff empowerment and professional development?
A. Transactional leadership
B. Transformational leadership
C. Laissez-faire leadership
D. Autocratic leadership
Rationale: Transformational leaders mentor, inspire, and develop staff.
17. In a quasi-experimental design, which threat to internal validity is most concerning
without randomization?
A. Measurement error
B. Selection bias
C. Low statistical power
D. Descriptive bias
Rationale: Without randomization, group differences may confound outcomes.
18. Which element is essential in a clinical practice guideline to ensure trustworthiness?
A. Sponsorship by a commercial vendor only
B. Clear link between recommendations and graded evidence
C. Relying solely on expert opinion without literature review
D. Vague recommendations to allow interpretation
Rationale: Evidence-based, transparent recommendations maintain credibility.
19. A nurse leader wants to evaluate the impact of a mentorship program on new NP
retention. Which outcome measure is most appropriate?
A. Number of mentorship meetings held
B. NP turnover rate at 12 months
C. Number of training modules completed
D. Patient satisfaction scores only
Rationale: Retention = actual staff retention; process metrics (A, C) do not measure the
outcome.
20. What does p < 0.05 mean in hypothesis testing?
A. The finding is large and clinically important
B. There is less than a 5% probability the observed result is due to random chance if the
null hypothesis is true
C. The null hypothesis is false with 95% certainty
D. The result is always clinically significant
Rationale: p-value indicates probability of observing data assuming the null is true; it does not
measure effect size or clinical importance.
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