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NREMT Practice Questions OBYGN with correct Answers

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NREMT Practice Questions OBYGN

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Subido en
6 de febrero de 2025
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Escrito en
2024/2025
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NREMT Practice Questions: OBYGN

Up to how many mL of blood loss is typically well tolerated by the mother following
delivery?

A. 2000
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500 - Correct Answers -B. 500

Answer Explanation:
Up to 500 mL blood loss is considered normal after delivery.

You are assessing a 23-year-old female with abdominal pain, fever, pain on urination,
and lethargy. What do you suspect is occurring?

A. Diverticulitis
B. Foodborne illness
C. Menstrual cramps
D. PID - Correct Answers -D. PID

Answer Explanation:
PID, or pelvic inflammatory disease, is an infection and inflammation of the upper
female genital tract. Often there will be no symptoms other than abdominal pain, but
often progresses when women do not receive treatment. Diverticulitis is inflammation of
the digestive tract, which could present with abdominal pain and fever, but most likely
not painful urination.

You are called to the home of a 20-year-old pregnant female who is 37-weeks pregnant.
Upon arrival, she tells you that she had a sudden visual obstruction while going up the
steps to her apartment. She described it as "seeing wiggly lines off to the side" in her
peripheral vision followed immediately by a migraine which has lasted for over 2 hours.
She is mentally competent and has no other complaints besides the migraine at this
time. Vitals: BP 142/92, HR 90, RR 18, SpO2 98%, and her skin is slightly warm and
diaphoretic. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition and what is the best
course of action?

A. Preeclampsia, recommend rapid transport
B. Placenta Previa, recommend rapid transport
C. Migraine, call medical control
D. TIA, recommend rapid transport - Correct Answers -A. Preeclampsia, recommend
rapid transport

,Answer Explanation:
The patient's blood pressure, skin condition, vision disturbances, and headache should
all alert you to preeclampsia. Rapid recognition and transport are the best course of
action.

You and your partner have been dispatched for a code 3 pregnancy problem at a
private residence in a small, rural community. The local volunteer fire station is unable
to provide staffing for the call so there are no additional resources available. Your
patient is 23-year-old female in active labor. She and the baby have been receiving the
appropriate care during her pregnancy, both are healthy, and the due date is today. She
says she feels the need to push - you visually inspect the perineum and notice there is
bulging present. The community hospital is 40 minutes away. What should you do?

A. Prepare for imminent delivery in the patient's home
B. Tell the mother she is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions and transport her in a
position of comfort
C. Transport the mother immediately in the left lateral recumbent position
D. Transport the mother immediately in the supine position - Correct Answers -A.
Prepare for imminent delivery in the patient's home

Answer Explanation:
Your decision should be to stay and deliver the baby due to distance from the hospital.
It is appropriate here to deliver the baby in the patient's home (the mother and baby
both are healthy). With bulging present and the urge to push, your patient will soon
deliver and you need to be ready. Your decision to initiate rapid transport or to deliver
the baby on scene may depend on your comfort level but should also consider maternal
health, prenatal health, and transport conditions (distance, weather, etc.).
What is the number one most common disabling birth anomaly in the United States?

A. Spina Bifida
B. Hydrocephalus
C. Crohn's
D. Duchenne's - Correct Answers -A. Spina Bifida

Answer Explanation:
Spina bifida affects the back portion of the vertebrae. It leaves an opening not allowing
the bone to fully close around the spinal cord. Due to this, various parts of the spinal
anatomy can protrude through those openings.

You are called to a 28-year-old female who is 8-months pregnant. She has noticed
sudden weight gain along with swelling of her hands and feet. She complains of a
headache and says her vision is blurry. This patient is mostly likely suffering from?

A. Miscarriage
B. Ectopic Pregnancy

, C. Congestive Heart Failure
D. Preeclampsia - Correct Answers -D. Preeclampsia

Answer Explanation:
This patient's symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia. Symptoms of a miscarriage
include severe menstrual cramping and vaginal bleeding. Symptoms of an ectopic
pregnancy include fatigue, abdominal and back pain, and spotting. This patient shows
no signs of respiratory related symptoms and has no complaints of difficulty breathing.

Of the following pregnancy-related complications, which is most likely to occur to a
pregnant patient who has experienced abdominal trauma?

A. Therapeutic abortion
B. Preeclampsia
C. Placenta previa
D. Abruptio placentae - Correct Answers -D. Abruptio placentae

Answer Explanation:
Abruptio placentae is a partial separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. It can
occur due to many different factors but is often caused by a traumatic injury. The other
answers are medically related.

You are treating a 2-year-old pediatric patient and palpate a brachial pulse of 134 beats
per minute. What are the normal limits set for a child of this age?

A. 80-120
B. 65-100
C. 100-180
D. 100-160 - Correct Answers -A. 80-120

Answer Explanation:
The normal range for a child of this age is 80-120 bpm. A normal range for a newborn is
100-180. A 1-year-old should have a pulse between 100-160. A normal pulse for a child
older than 3 years falls between 65-110 beats per minute.

What should you do if your pediatric patient with a suspected foreign body airway
obstruction is coughing?

A. Let them continue to cough
B. Perform a blind finger sweep
C. Back slaps followed by chest thrusts
D. Heimlich maneuve - Correct Answers -A. Let them continue to cough

Answer Explanation:
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