Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition

Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th EditionChapter 15: Information Technology in the Clinical Setting Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Consumers are concerned with security issues related to their confidential health information being placed in an electronic health record (EHR). However, when the security of the EHR is compared with that of paper-and-pencil records, the EHR is: a. more secure. b. less secure. c. equivalent. d. not comparable with the paper-and-pencil record. ANS: A Computer-based patient record systems, such as EHRs, provide better protection than paper-based systems. The EHR allows only authorized users to view data, and access to records can be audited for inappropriate use. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 271 2. During a search for the term informatics, when the nurse finds the domain ―.edu,‖ the site is affiliated with a(n): a. government agency. b. commercial site. c. educational institution d. Internet service provider. ANS: C The domain of an educational institution is .edu. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 276 3. When paper-and-pencil medical records are compared with computer-based records: a. paper-and-pencil records provide controls to determine who has viewed the health information. b. information contained in a paper-and-pencil record has the capability of being more in-depth than that found in computer-based records. c. patients have the right to know that the confidentiality of their records is strictly maintained, regardless of the type of medical record used. d. patients must sign for each item of information released on the computer record. ANS: C Regardless of the type of record used, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) protects the confidentiality of the patient‘s medical information and imposes legal consequences for those who breech confidentiality. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 271 4. A nurse is preparing a scholarly publication on the prevalence of hepatitis A worldwide. The most efficient and effective means of conducting an Internet search to gather information for this publication is to use: a. a search engine such as Google or Yahoo. b. a consumer health website. c. a decision support system. d. MEDLINE database. ANS: D MEDLINE is one of the scientific and research scholarly databases, and it would be the most appropriate for use in gathering information for a scholarly publication. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 276 5. A consumer is learning about electronic health records at a local health fair and states, ―I am worried that someone can read my health information and I really don‘t understand the difference between privacy and confidentiality.‖ The nurse explains that an example of confidentiality would be: a. a pledge that states, ―I will hold matters pertaining to my patients in strict intimacy.‖ b. a patient who does not tell the physician that he has been treated for a sexually transmitted disease. c. a teenager who sustains a broken arm and in the emergency department and withholds information about her use of recreational drugs. d. locking medical records in cabinets to prevent unauthorized users from accessing patient information. ANS: A Confidentiality is keeping private the personal information that was given to a health care provider, unless others have a legitimate need to know. DIF: Application REF: p. 271 6. A physician has installed a computer-based patient records system. An outside care provider who requests medical information must obtain the patient‘s signed consent and then is assigned a password to gain access to the medical information. A monthly audit is conducted to determine for whom and for what purpose patient records have been accessed. This protection is referred to as: a. privacy. b. confidentiality. c. security. d. data capture. ANS: C Security is the limitation of access to health care information through passwords and other precautions. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 271 7. A nurse walks up to a computer in the hallway and presses the index finger to the sensor, thereby gaining access to patient data. A few moments later another nurse performs the same steps and is granted access. A visitor who is watching from a room walks over and places the index finger on the sensor, only to receive an ―error and access denied‖ message. Security is being maintained by: a. robot technology. b. biometric technology. c. telehealth. d. ubiquitous computing. ANS: B Biometric fingerprint identification uses personal characteristics to allow access to health information. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 277 8. A nurse who is teaching a class to introduce telehealth to the staff would include which example? a. A robot performs menial housekeeping chores for an invalid patient. b. A computer software program alerts the nurse or physician who is reviewing orders that an order for a new drug can cause synergy of the theophylline inhaler. c. A physician speaks into a computer, and the admission history is recorded and saved in the patient file. d. While a patient in Wyoming performs peritoneal dialysis, a nurse watches remotely from California to ensure that all steps are being followed correctly. ANS: D Telehealth is the delivery of care to a patient who is at a distance from the health care provider. DIF: Application REF: p. 273 9. An advanced practice nurse inputs into a computer software program the following clinical manifestations: open wound with tibia exposed, petechial hemorrhage, and temporary loss of consciousness. The computer diagnosis of fat emboli is generated by a system known as: a. decision support. b. telehealth. c. robotic technology. d. biometric technology. ANS: A Decision support systems are computer-based information systems that include knowledge-based systems designed to support clinical decision making. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 268-269 10. A nurse is preparing a presentation using different websites to collect information. The nurse is concerned that contact information and the author‘s credentials are not listed for one of the websites reviewed. Which criterion required to establish a reputable website is missing? a. Authority b. Objectivity c. Usability d. Currency ANS: A Authority is the criterion that is related to the credentials and background that have prepared an author to publish on the subject. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 276 11. A nurse is interested in locating reliable information concerning noninvasive blood glucose monitoring. Information is located, and the author is a scientist who conducted studies within the last year on the effectiveness of a particular noninvasive blood glucose monitor. The scientist received funding from a pharmaceutical company to support the studies. The URL indicates the pharmaceutical company . The nurse is concerned about this information‘s: a. authority. b. objectivity. c. accuracy. d. currency. ANS: B Sites sponsored by organizations such as pharmaceutical companies may influence the content. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 276 12. A nurse providing care at the bedside receives an ―alert‖ that a patient‘s stat potassium level is 2.5 and digoxin (Lanoxin) is scheduled. The nurse holds the medication and prevents a possible complication. This feature of the Electronic Health Record is available through which core function of EHR? a. Order entry/order management b. Decision support c. Patient support d. Administrative support ANS: B Decision support provides reminders about preventive practices, such as immunizations, drug alerts for dosing and interactions, and clinical decision making. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 268-269 13. A nurse works on a unit where electronic health records (EHR) are being initiated and asks, ―What is meant by ‗meaningful use‘ standards that are in our education packet?‖ The best answer is that ―meaningful use‖: a. identifies a set of EHR proficiencies and benchmarks that EHR systems must meet to be certain that they are functioning to their maximum capacity and meeting this standard allows companies/organizations to qualify for funds to defray cost of the EHR from Medicare. b. refers to training competencies that all users must achieve to be able to access and transfer patient data/information. c. refers to a requirement that at least 50% plus one of all patients have data entered into the EHR. d. the requirement that rigorous confidentiality security is in place to protect all patient information from sources which have no right to the data. ANS: A Meaningful use is ―A defined set of EHR capabilities and standards that EHR systems must meet to ensure their full capacity is realized and for the users (hospitals and physician practices) to qualify for financial incentives from Medicare.‖ DIF: Application REF: p. 271 14. A nurse is caring for a patient who is to receive an antibiotic drug that causes severe skin damage when infiltrated. The order reads, ―infuse over 1 hour by portacath.‖ The nurse accesses the Personal Digital Assistant for software that lists the steps to access a portacath. The nurse is using: a. electronic health records. b. point-of-care technology. c. data management. d. telehealth. ANS: B Using a Personal Digital Assist device to access information at the bedside is considered point-of-care technology. The nurse was able to retrieve the steps for accessing a portacath electronically while remaining at the bedside. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 273 15. The Institute of Medicine (IOM) (2003) recommends that EHR systems offer eight functionalities. A patient has a severe allergy to eggs and penicillin. Which of the eight functions of the EHR would address sharing this information? a. Health information and data capture b. Results/data management c. Provider order entry management d. Clinical decision support ANS: A The health information and data capture function includes information such as medical history, laboratory tests, allergies, current medications, and consent forms. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 269, Table 15-1 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A new nurse asks, ―Since Electronic Medical Records can improve quality care by having seamless data available for a patient, why doesn‘t everyone just replace paper and pencil charts‖? Barriers to a universal health information infrastructure include the fact that: (select all that apply) a. competition from individual companies to build EMR prevent a universal infrastructure. b. cost is prohibitive even with federal funding for larger health care systems. c. preventive health reminders for immunizations and yearly screenings such as mammograms are used in clinical decision making. d. insurance companies have halted sharing of some patient data due to fear of law suits. e. the full capacity of EHRs has not been realized with only Stage 1 of 3 nearing completion. ANS: A, E It has been recommended that only a federal-based EMR would provide an infrastructure that allows access to comprehensive patient information. The first stage, years 2011 and 2012, forms the foundation for electronic data capture and information sharing. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 271 2. A nurse interested in quality improvement tools performed a search for cause and effect diagrams using . A page opened that provided images and templates for performing fishbone diagrams. Which type of search did the nurse conduct? a. Quick and dirty b. Advanced c. Brute force d. Link searching ANS: C Brute force is a method of searching where you type in what you think might logically be a web address and see what happens. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 275 COMPLETION 1. Software programs that process data to produce or recommend valid choices are known as . ANS: decision support systems Decision support systems use software programs that process data to produce or recommend decisions by linking with an electronic knowledge base. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 269 Chapter 16: Emergency Preparedness and Response for Today’s World Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Nurses and community officials are working together to ensure that churches and schools have needed supplies to provide shelter for large numbers of individuals in the event of a natural or manmade disaster. These activities represent which phase of a disaster continuum? a. Preparedness b. Relief response c. Recovery d. Crisis intervention ANS: A Every disaster response begins as a local event known as the preparedness phase, which consists of planning, preparedness, prevention, and warning. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 285 2. A nurse at a school notices that several students have ―blisters‖ on their bodies. Further investigation reveals that a terrorist incident has occurred, causing smallpox. If the chemical, biologic, radiologic, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) agent categories are used, this incident would be classified as: a. chemical. b. biologic. c. radiologic. d. nuclear. ANS: B The biologic category refers to diseases such as plague or smallpox. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 284, Table 16-1 3. The Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS): a. is totally financed by the federal government national disaster fund. b. consists of responders who have obtained specialized training and equipment to deal with mass casualty events. c. has a storehouse of medications and antidotes to be used during response in times of national emergencies. d. arranges for patient admissions to federal hospitals. ANS: B The MMRS responds to disaster with trained individuals who have expertise in this type of situation and who have the equipment required to be effective. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 286 4. A community in the New Madrid fault zone experiences an earthquake resulting in injuries from propelled objects and abrasions for many victims. The local supply of antibiotics is quickly exhausted. Local authorities would contact the: a. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force. b. Strategic National Stockpile. c. Department of Homeland Security. d. local Young Men‘s Christian Association (YMCA). ANS: B The Strategic National Stockpile provides antibiotics, antidotes, and medical and surgical items when local and state supplies have been exhausted. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 287 5. During the relief response phase of a disaster resulting from a ―dirty bomb‖: a. treatment for burns and poisoning is provided for victims. b. emergency plans are coordinated between agencies. c. reconstruction of destroyed facilities and homes begins. d. food stores are collected for potential victims. ANS: A During the relief response phase of a disaster, emergency responders provide assistance to victims and stabilize the scene; with a dirty bomb, radioactive material causes burns and poisoning. DIF: Analysis REF: p. 288 6. A nurse learns of a mass casualty disaster following a known terrorist attack. On arriving at the scene, the nurse knows that: a. the response of local hospitals will be dictated by the federal government. b. the same ground rules practiced in other settings and during smaller crises will be applicable. c. the least experienced nurses will be assigned to triage low-risk victims and victims who have no chance of survival. d. multiple incident commanders ensure a quick, effective response. ANS: B The fundamentals of nursing applied to other settings and situations can be used in a disaster. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 283 7. Nurses caring for the victims of a mass casualty incident: a. determine the common terminology to be used by hospitals and participating agencies. b. take charge of communicating with the news media. c. determine whether there is a credible threat of a terrorist attack. d. give priority for care to those with the greatest chance of survival rather than those most critically ill. ANS: D Care is shifted from categorizing patients at low, intermediate, and critical risk to using resources to serve those with the greatest likelihood of survival. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 283 8. During a community health fair the disaster medical assistance team (DMAT) informs participants that every community must be ready to provide disaster care. A participant asks, ―In a disaster, the local community cannot possibly be effective, so why not have a plan to call federal agencies immediately to provide relief?‖ The correct response by the DMAT is: a. ―Unless known terrorist activities involving mass destruction occur, the federal government does not become involved.‖ b. ―The community is essentially the ‗first responder‘ to any disaster.‖ c. ―The preparedness phase of a disaster is the responsibility of the community, the relief response phase is assigned to state agencies, and the recovery phase is the responsibility of federal agencies.‖ d. ―Unless local health care facilities are incapacitated, state and federal agencies will withhold assistance.‖ ANS: B Each disaster begins locally, and each community responds first and receives assistance from state and federal agencies when local resources are not adequate for the situation. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 285 9. A nurse who is conducting a staff in-service on the phases of a disaster continuum teaches participants that, during the impact/response stage, activities focus on: a. community awareness in anticipation of a terrorist attack or natural disaster. b. determining the effectiveness of the disaster medical assistance team (DMAT). c. the use of an all-hazards approach. d. initiating response activities. ANS: D Response activities during the relief response phase consist of immediate actions to save lives and meet basic human needs. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 288 10. Following a terrorist attack, victims are exhibiting posttraumatic stress syndrome, and care providers are exhibiting compassion fatigue. Which federal response system should be initiated? a. Strategic National Stockpile b. Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS) c. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force d. National Disaster Medical System ANS: B The MMRS is concerned with deploying trained responders who are able to provide mental health care for victims and health care providers. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 286 11. The crisis communication officer may first inform the public or health care facility of a disaster or an act of terrorism. This representative has the responsibility to: a. contain the facts to within the administration group. b. incite the public to quickly take cover and obtain emergency supplies. c. provide understandable and straightforward facts about the event within the facility and possibly to the news media. d. inform the public that no information can be released until it has been confirmed by state and federal agencies. ANS: C The crisis communication officer is the first contact for patients, families, and employees within the facility or news media, so they may better understand the situation and know how to react and protect themselves. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 289 12. The disaster medical assistance team works quickly to contain contaminants from a chemical plant explosion. Afterward, personnel undergo a special process to remove harmful chemicals from equipment and supplies. This removal process is known as: a. containment. b. decontamination. c. triage. d. scene assessment. ANS: B Decontamination is the physical process of removing harmful substances from personnel, equipment, and supplies. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 280 13. A group of local volunteers respond to a tornado. Volunteers have completed an emergency response course and are able to assist with triage of injured citizens. They also participate in local health fairs to teach residents how to react during tornadoes. The responders are members of the: a. Medical Reserve Corps (MRC). b. Metropolitan Medical Response System (MMRS). c. National Disaster Medical System (NDMS). d. Commissioned Corps Readiness Force (CCRF). ANS: A The MRC are local volunteers trained to respond to local emergencies. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 285 14. Troops from the United States participating in a peace mission in a foreign country were the victims of suicide bombers and many soldiers were evacuated back home to receive specialized medical care. The nation‘s medical responses will be augmented by: a. the federally coordinated National Disaster Medical System. b. local homeland communities where troops receive care. c. the Medical Reserve Corps, which organizes and utilizes public health, nursing, medical, and other volunteers. d. the National Incident Management System, which guides government, nongovernmental organizations, and the private sector to work seamlessly during disaster situations. ANS: A The National Disaster Medical System supplements care for casualties evacuated back to the United States from overseas and federally declared disasters including national disasters, major transportation accidents, technologic disasters, and acts of terrorism. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 286-287 15. A nurse is informed that the Federal Bureau of Investigation has determined that a bomb has been detected and is in the possession of a known terrorist group. The government buildings in the local community are the target. This situation is termed a(n): a. all-hazards approach. b. biologic event. c. credible threat. d. natural disaster. ANS: C A credible threat is a situation in which the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) determines that a terrorist threat is probable and verifies the involvement of a weapon of mass destruction in the developing terrorist incident. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 280 16. The emergency response team responded to a terrorist attack where hundreds of people died following symptoms of chest tightness, palpations, seizures, and finally paralysis. A colorless odorless liquid known as Sarin (GB) was the agent, which is primarily inhaled with limited exposure through the skin. The concentration of Sarin has not been measured. What level is the minimum level of personal protection and safety equipment (PPE) that would be needed? a. A b. B c. C d. D ANS: B Level B requires a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection, providing a chemical splash–resistant suit with hood and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). It provides maximum respiratory protection but less skin protection than level A equipment. DIF: Analysis REF: p. 289 17. A state is devastated by a tornado killing many people, destroying communication systems, utility services, homes, and medical facilities. The state requests immediate assistance from the U.S. Congress and from surrounding states. The affected state should first contact the: a. Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC). b. Institute of Medicine (IOM). c. Red Cross. d. Strategic National Stockpile. ANS: A The EMAC is an organization authorized by the U.S. Congress through which a state impacted by a disaster can request and receive assistance from other member states quickly and efficiently. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 280 18. A nurse is interested in learning the phases of the disaster continuum and realizes it has many similarities to the nursing process. To better understand the phases of a disaster, which is true when comparing the phases of the disaster continuum to the nursing process? a. The preparedness phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process. b. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the planning step of the nursing process. c. The recovery phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the implementation step of the nursing process. d. The response relief phase of the disaster continuum is consistent with the evaluation step of the nursing process. ANS: A The preparedness phase requires assessing possible needs of the community and planning appropriate interventions and is consistent with the assessment and planning steps of the nursing process. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 285 19. In the preparedness phase for disasters, the community plans for a possible terrorist attack using anthrax as the weapon of destruction. What treatments and/or preparations would be needed? a. Vaccines and Level B Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) b. Treatment for burns, decontamination, and Level A PPE c. Social distance determination, decontamination for radioactive fallout d. Identify and detect incendiary devices, treatment for burns and propellants ANS: A Anthrax is a biologic weapon and requires Level B protection since it is a known agent and can be carried in wind or surfaces. Timing of treatment is critical and vaccines are available. DIF: Analysis REF: pp. 282-284, Table 16-1 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Health care professionals have been activated to respond to a disaster, and the registered nurse who is coordinating the effort realizes that: (select all that apply) a. in the event of a mass casualty incident, care is prioritized to those who have the greatest chance of surviving. b. communities should use their own resources first to attempt to stabilize and organize the response. c. state assistance occurs any time a disaster occurs, regardless of the community‘s resources. d. the emergency operating plan developed by one central agency rather than individual facilities should be put into operation. e. strict protocols regarding the use of resources must be followed. ANS: A, B Care is shifted to doing the most good for the most people. Efforts begin at the local level. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 283-284 2. When teaching community preparedness for a community group, the nurse explains that components of the National Disaster Medical System (NDMS) provide for: (select all that apply) a. a nationwide bomb disposal squad team for the rapid removal of explosive devices. b. teams of health care providers who are experts and have specialized supplies and equipment. c. structures for patient evacuation from the disaster area to an unaffected area. d. arrangements for hospitalization in federal and volunteer nonfederal acute care hospitals. e. providing mental health care for the community, for victims, and for health care providers. ANS: B, C, D The NDMS provides specially trained teams of people along with equipment designed for disaster relief. The NDMS is responsible for removing patients from unsafe to safe areas. The NDMS coordinates efforts to evacuate victims to federal or nonfederal volunteer hospitals that can care for disaster victims. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 286 COMPLETION 1. The emergency preparedness term that is used to describe the process of limiting the emergency situation within a well-defined area is . ANS: containment Containment is correct because the focus is to prevent the agent that caused the disaster from spreading. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 280 2. The term used during a pandemic disaster that refers to the attempt to contain germs by limiting socialization and personal interactions is . ANS: social distancing The term social distancing refers to the attempt to keep people as far apart as possible so as to limit the possibility of spreading germs. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 291 Chapter 17: Nursing Leadership and Management Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In an attempt to persuade employees to bargain for another type of health insurance, a handout is circulated that describes the present employees‘ health care insurance as being insensitive, limiting choices of care providers, and providing inferior care. This reflects which aspect of Lewin‘s planned change? a. Unfreeze b. Move c. Refreeze d. Acceptance ANS: A Unfreeze is correct because the change agent promotes problem identification and encourages awareness of the need for change. In alignment with Lewin‘s stages of change (unfreezing, moving, and refreezing), education and involvement are keys to successful change. People must believe that improvement is possible before they will be willing to consider change. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 311 2. One difference between a leader and a manager is that a: a. leader has legitimate authority. b. manager motivates and inspires others. c. manager focuses on coordinating resources. d. leader focuses on accomplishing goals of the organization. ANS: C The terms leadership and management are often used interchangeably, and it is difficult to discuss one without discussing the other. However, these roles have specific traits unique to themselves. The manager is the coordinator of resources (time, people, and supplies) needed to achieve outcomes. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 296 3. The first step in the nursing process and in the problem-solving process is to: a. identify the problem. b. gather information. c. consider the consequences. d. implement interventions. ANS: B The nursing process, which is familiar to nurses who address patient care needs, can be applied to all management activities that require decision making and problem-solving. As in the nursing process and the problem-solving process, one must first gather information about the problem or situation. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 309-310 4. An explosion just occurred at the local factory, and hundreds of employees have sustained varying degrees of injury. Which type of nursing leadership is most effective in this situation? a. Autocratic b. Democratic c. Laissez-faire d. Referent ANS: A The dynamics of the situation demand that the leader take control and direct employees to specific actions in response to the emergency. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 300, Box 17-3 5. An RN with excellent assessment and psychomotor skills would derive power on the basis of which source? a. Rewards b. Coercion c. Expert d. Legitimate ANS: C Seven primary sources of power are known. Expert power is based on knowledge, skills, and information. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 297 6. Managers who exhibit an authoritative behavioral style are most likely to use which source of power? a. Informal b. Expert c. Coercive d. Reward ANS: C Seven primary sources of power are known. Coercive power is based on fear of punishment or failure to comply. Coercive power fits well into the authoritative behavioral style because authoritative managers dictate the work with much control, usually ignore the ideas or suggestions of subordinates, and provide little feedback or recognition for work accomplished. DIF: Application REF: p. 300, Box 17-3 7. Florence Nightingale is attributed with being intelligent (she developed statistical methods to evaluate health care), dependable (she often worked long hours to care for the injured), and ambitious (she fought against society‘s perception of nursing). Those who depict her as a leader on the basis of these qualities are practicing which leadership theory? a. Trait b. Chaos c. Bureaucracy d. Organizational ANS: A Leadership trait theory describes intrinsic traits of leaders and is based on the assumption that leaders were born with particular leadership characteristics. Other traits found to be associated with this leadership theory include intelligence, alertness, dependability, energy, drive, enthusiasm, ambition, decisiveness, self-confidence, cooperativeness, and technical mastery. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 298 8. A nurse manager is concerned with restocking the emergency cart, creating the staff schedule, requesting floor stock from pharmacy, and checking the orders on patient charts. Which type of leader accurately describes this nurse? a. Transactional b. Situational c. Transformational d. Contemporary ANS: A The transactional leader is concerned with the day-to-day operations of the facility. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 298, Box 17-1 9. According to the unit‘s policy for call-ins, a nurse is suspended for 3 days because of excessive call-ins that occur within 15 minutes of shift change. The nurse states, ―You are unfair to me.‖ Which theory would disprove the nurse‘s statement? a. Authoritative b. Closed systems c. Open systems d. Trait ANS: A Autocratic/authoritative management style revolves around the assumption that authority confers the right to issue commands within an organization on the basis of impersonal rules and rights, by virtue of the management position rather than any trait ascribed to the person who occupies that position. Other characteristics include the following: Impersonal rules govern the actions of superiors over subordinates, all personnel are chosen for their competence and are subject to strict rules that are applied impersonally and uniformly, and a system of procedures for dealing with work situations is in place. Represents the systems theory of the organization. DIF: Application REF: p. 300, Box 17-3 10. A nurse is reading about positive reinforcement with the goal of increasing staff motivation. Which action would demonstrate positive reinforcement? a. Every morning at shift change, thank each employee for an excellent job. b. Rotate a monthly ―employee recognition award‖ among all employees on the unit. c. Wait until the annual performance review to recognize accomplishments. d. Give spur-of-the-moment recognition to an employee who has accomplished a goal. ANS: D To be effective, positive reinforcement should (1) be specific, with praise given for a particular task done well or a goal accomplished; (2) occur as close as possible to the time of the achievement; (3) be spontaneous and unpredictable (praise given routinely tends to lose value); and (4) be given for a genuine accomplishment. DIF: Application REF: p. 306 11. Which action represents the key management function of strategic planning? a. Determining that all nurses on the unit understand the current organizational philosophy b. Evaluating the communication process between the pharmacy and the nursing departments c. Monitoring data from the quality management initiative related to the last three orientation programs d. Developing a 5-year plan that will incorporate the clinical nurse leader as a part of all nursing units ANS: D A strategic plan is a written document that details organizational goals, allocates resources, assigns responsibilities, and determines time frames. The strategic plan generally looks 3 to 5 years into the future. DIF: Application REF: pp. 301-302 12. A hospital‘s policy requires that all nurse managers must have a minimum of a bachelor‘s degree in nursing. A BSN nurse new to the hospital has recently been hired as nurse manager for the oncology unit. An RN who has worked on this unit for many years is unable to be promoted to a nurse manager position because of his educational status and has been commenting to physicians and staff, ―The new nurse manager has book sense but no leadership abilities.‖ What is the best approach that can be used by the new nurse manager who is attempting to gain the trust and respect of the nursing staff on the unit? a. Send memos to all staff except the upset nurse to invite them to a luncheon. b. Ask management to transfer the upset nurse to another unit. c. Assign the upset nurse to committees that do not directly affect that nursing unit. d. Acknowledge the clinical expertise of the upset nurse and clearly explain the expectations for teamwork and open, honest communication. ANS: D The best way for the new nurse manager to communicate with this employee, who may be an informal leader, is to show respect for the individual‘s clinical expertise and experience through clear and direct communication. The new nurse manager should attempt to identify the staff nurse‘s power as an informal leader, should involve him and other staff members in decision-making and change-implementation processes, and should clearly communicate goals and work expectations to all staff members. DIF: Application REF: pp. 297-298 13. A clinical nurse leader (CNL) enters the workforce and hopes to use her interdisciplinary skills to participate on a quality improvement committee. The coordinator of the quality group invites the CNL to join the group. Which type of power is demonstrated by the coordinator of the group? a. Coercive b. Transformational c. Laissez-fair d. Legitimate ANS: D The coordinator of the committee has an official position within the organizational committee. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 297 14. A director of nursing (DON) asks the staff to list how their nursing unit can help the organization meet its goal to ―provide quality patient care with attention to compassion and excellence.‖ An ad hoc committee is formed to develop a timeline of identified actions. The DON coaches the committee to reach desired outcomes. This DON is demonstrating which other role of leadership and management? a. Transactional b. Clinical consultant c. Corporate supporter d. Autocratic ANS: C The manager is embracing the mission of the organization by supporting achievement of goals noted in the mission statement. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 311 15. A staff nurse provides care based on intuition and always seems to be in control of her personal and professional life—serving on the board of the state nurses association, serving as the nursing unit‘s representative on the ethics committee, and coaching her daughter‘s soft ball team. Many of the staff observes how she manages time and provides care. This nurse‘s power comes from which type of power? a. Referent b. Legitimate c. Information d. Connection ANS: A Referent power comes from the followers‘ identification with the leader. Referent leaders are admired and respected and able to influence other nurses because of their desire to emulate her. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 297 16. A staff nurse states, ―I really enjoyed having dinner with the Chief of Medical Staff and the President of the hospital. We hope to meet again soon.‖ Which source of power does this nurse possess? a. Expert b. Legitimate c. Connection d. Reward ANS: C Connection power results from knowing or associating with power people such as the upper administration. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 297-298 17. A nurse manager wants his nursing unit to be a place where all nurses want to work, where patient satisfaction is high, and care is innovative and interdisciplinary. Staff are encouraged to chair taskforces to improve quality of care and he counsels staff in areas of measuring patient outcomes. Other managers want to mimic this manager‘s approach to improve their own units. This nurse is which type of leader? a. Transformational b. Transactional c. Laissez-faire d. Authoritative ANS: A Transformational leaders mentor followers through a vision and are admired and emulated. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 298 18. A hospital recently learned that their scorecard did not meet the national benchmark for patient satisfaction and brought in a professional change agent to determine what their issues were and how they could improve their score. The agent collected data and recommended that nurses participate in interdisciplinary walking rounds and allow the patient and family to be participants. Nurses now round every shift and perform ―huddles to update the team‖ as needed throughout the shift as part of best practices. Random visits are made to nursing units to ensure all nurses are participating and patients are interviewed for their involvement. This stage of Lewin‘s change is: a. unfreeze. b. moving. c. refreeze. d. resistance. ANS: C In the refreezing stage, change becomes status quo and the agent reinforces until the change is part of the daily process as in the above situation. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 311 19. A manager just finished the last annual performance review of the staff, reviews the unexpected expenditures for the month due to use of agency nurses, and shares the latest quality indicators with the staff nurses. This manager is performing which management function? a. Directing b. Planning c. Organizing d. Controlling ANS: D Controlling is the final management function. It includes performance evaluations, financial activities, and tracking outcomes of care to ensure quality. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 307 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Registered nurses who are entering the workforce will have expanded leadership responsibilities that include: (select all that apply) a. serving on interdisciplinary care teams. b. being competent to work in several areas independently when dictated by patient census. c. attending a meeting to plan advanced training for unlicensed assistive personnel. d. evaluating outcomes of care that are reported to a standing committee. e. managing units with higher acuity, shorter length of stay, and more diverse patients and staff. ANS: A, C, D, E The new nurses will be placed in many situations that require leadership and management skills: for example, managing a group of assigned patients, serving on a task force or committee, acting as team leaders or charge nurses, and supervising unlicensed assistive personnel and licensed vocational/practical nurses. Diverse patients have comorbidities and require complex interventions delivered during shorter stays with an ever-increasing diverse staff. The new nurses will be placed in many situations that require leadership and management skills, for example, managing a group of assigned patients, serving on a task force or committee, acting as team leaders or charge nurses, and supervising unlicensed assistive personnel and licensed vocational/practical nurses. The new nurses will be placed in many situations that require leadership and management skills, for example, managing a group of assigned patients, serving on a task force or committee, acting as team leaders or charge nurses, and supervising unlicensed assistive personnel and licensed vocational/practical nurses. The new nurses will be placed in many situations that require leadership and management skills, for example, managing a group of assigned patients, serving on a task force or committee, acting as team leaders or charge nurses, and supervising unlicensed assistive personnel and licensed vocational/practical nurses. DIF: Application REF: pp. 296-297 2. A nurse asks, ―What is meant by ‗internal‘ customers?‖ The correct response is: (select all that apply) a. insurance companies b. accreditors such as The Joint Commission c. X-ray technicians d. clinical pharmacist e. chief financial officer ANS: C, D, E Internal customers are employees of an organization at all levels. An x-ray technician is an example of an internal customer. Internal customers are employees of an organization at all levels. A clinical pharmacist is an example of an internal customer. Internal customers are employees of an organization at all levels. A chief financial officer is an example of an internal customer. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 308 Chapter 18: Budgeting Basics for Nurses Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse manager plans the fiscal budget to include salaries for two RNs for two 12-hour shifts with a patient census of 6 in the short-stay observation room. The nurse manager reviews the budget report 3 months later and notes that the salary expenses are higher than was budgeted because of higher-than-planned RN staff salaries. This additional RN staff is necessary to meet patient care needs because the census has remained constant at 10 patients rather than the 6 projected when the budget was developed. The difference between the planned budget and the actual cost is known as: a. revenue. b. variance. c. monitoring. d. capital expenditures. ANS: B Variance is the difference between the planned budget and actual results; it can be a positive or a negative discrepancy. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 316 2. A nursing unit‘s census consists primarily of long-term residents with a high risk for falls. To meet new safety regulations, the nurse manager must plan to replace all 50 patient beds with new beds equipped with Fall Watch electronic sensors that will detect when patients get out of bed. The manager will be involved in which type of budgeting to replace the beds? a. Fiscal b. Labor c. Operational d. Capital ANS: D Capital budgets are concerned with major purchases such as equipment paid for over several years. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 320-321 3. A nurse manager is preparing a budget that does not base annual budgets on the revenue and expenditures of the prior year and has the advantage that outdated information is not integrated into the budget. The manager is using which budget method? a. Zero-based b. Incremental c. Labor d. Operational ANS: A The zero-based method is based on the assumption of no volume and no resources assigned; it essentially starts each new budget period at zero rather than building from past budgets. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 321 4. A nurse on the unit is heard saying, ―I am not going to document that I used four catheters to start that IV; it doesn‘t matter anyway.‖ What action can help the staff nurse understand the financial budget goals of the unit? a. Have the nurse work in payroll for a week. b. Enroll the staff in continuing education units (CEU) for personal finance. c. Ask the nurse to represent the unit on the budget planning committee. d. Make the nurse responsible for monitoring all disposable equipment and supplies. ANS: C Participating on the committee will give the nurse ownership of the unit‘s budget and will provide insight into the unit‘s budgetary goals. DIF: Analysis REF: p. 326 5. In a large health care facility, the executive administrative leaders set the budget goals to decrease full-time equivalents by 3%, eliminate the cost of agency nurses, reduce lost revenue from lost supplies by 1%, and provide a 0.5% hourly salary incentive for working on a float unit when the assigned unit has a low census. Nurse managers meet with nursing administrators to design their unit budgets to meet these established goals. The budget approach that is being used is the approach. a. top-down b. participatory c. iterative d. incremental ANS: A Budget goals are established by administrators; unit managers do not contribute to goal setting, which is the primary principle of the top-down approach. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 321-322 6. Which component of budgeting might normally be addressed in the annual performance evaluation for a nurse manager? a. Including in the labor budget costs for overtime and benefits b. Managing variances in nursing overtime costs and supply usage c. Accurately predicting revenues on the basis of unit-of-service d. Providing qualitative analysis for variances in the capital budget ANS: B Nurse managers are often evaluated according to their success in managing nursing overtime costs and supply usage as reflected in the unit‘s budget. DIF: Application REF: p. 319 7. A primary function of the budgeting process is to provide managers with an opportunity to: a. insist that salary increases for all nurses are included in the annual budget. b. discuss concerns about resource allocation with leaders of the organization who are capable of resolving issues. c. develop a mechanism for changing from zero-based budgeting to incremental budgeting. d. develop for all staff an educational program related to supply usage. ANS: B Coordination and communication are very important functions of budgeting that require many different groups within an organization to come together with organizational leaders to discuss the resources necessary to accomplish the goals of a business unit. DIF: Application REF: p. 318 8. Organizations measure the effectiveness of their budgets by examining actual revenues and expenditures versus: a. planned variances. b. incremental budgets. c. productivity metrics. d. expected performance. ANS: D Variance analysis is the process by which deviations from budgeted amounts are examined by comparing actual performance results against expected, or budgeted, performance. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 323 9. When the nurse manager conducts a qualitative analysis of budget variances, he or she is: a. determining the percentage increase of supply usage from the last quarter to the current quarter. b. identifying the overall increase in the dollar amount of salaries paid for overtime. c. comparing productivity metrics across all nursing units in the facility. d. reconciling with current conditions the underlying assumptions on which the budget was based. ANS: D Qualitative analysis of the budget explains why current conditions are different than they were when the budget was developed; new conditions might include greater patient acuity or additional physicians with increased admissions. DIF: Application REF: p. 323 10. A nurse manager is working with the financial officer to develop the budget of the nursing unit for the next fiscal year. The nurse manager tells the financial officer that which of the following pieces of information will affect budget assumptions? a. The capital budget request for new emergency department equipment has been turned in for consideration by the hospital‘s administrative team. b. The patient census likely will increase during the next fiscal year because two large physician groups have transferred their admission privileges to this hospital. c. The participatory budgeting approach instituted last year has been helpful in controlling supply costs. d. Zero-based budgeting will help the managers to be more efficient in establishing next year‘s budget. ANS: B Budget assumptions are future predictors of performance and include the stability of the price of supplies, the salary range needed to recruit and retain quality employees, new services offered by competitors, and the variability of the patient census. DIF: Application REF: p. 322 11. The nurse manager meets with upper management to share strategic goals agreed upon by her staff for their individual nursing unit as the first step to begin budget negotiations. One strategic goal is that staff will have access to technology that will allow them to incorporate point-of-care devices for all RNs. The second goal is to improve RNs‘ ability to recognize critical indicators that a patient‘s health status is deteriorating through advanced health assessment skills. During the meeting the manager discusses the strategy options and selecting the one that works for the unit. Which type of budget development is used? a. Iterative b. Top-down c. Participatory d. Zero-based ANS: C In the participatory approach, the people responsible for achieving the budget goals are included in goal setting. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 322 12. The nursing executive team met to review last year‘s productivity metric to strategize for the upcoming year‘s metric. The team wants to be certain the productivity metric shows productivity was: a. high. b. low. c. balanced. d. iterative. ANS: C A balanced productivity is desired because it encourages quality and safety while providing financial efficiency. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 320 13. The nurse manager meets with upper administration and learns that the strategic plan for nursing is to have 80% BSN staff within the next 3 years. The nurse manager then built her budget to meet the organization‘s strategic goal by providing tuition reimbursement and flexible work hours, which required some agency staffing. Which approach to budgeting is used? a. Iterative b. Top-down c. Participatory d. Zero-based ANS: A The iterative approach is a combination of the top-down and the participatory approach, with upper management defining strategic goals and then unit leaders developing their operating budgets to incorporate their individual goals in conjunction with the organization‘s strategic goals. DIF: Comprehension REF: pp. 321-322 14.14. The nurse managers of an organization are meeting with administration to plan the budget. The above graph shows last year‘s 2011 expenditures, and the team will trend the upcoming budget knowing that, with the slowdown in the economy, patient census will be lower. Which budget approach is being used? a. Incremental b. Zero-based c. Productivity metrics d. Capital ANS: A The incremental approach is simply a forward trend of current or recent performance with adjustments for future growth or decline in revenues or expenses. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 321 15. Nurses on a unit met with the nurse manager as part of participatory budgeting. They ask, ―What exactly is the difference between fixed and variable costs? Understanding this will help us better understand the budgeting process.‖ The manager provides a definition and asks the staff to list types of direct and indirect cost. Which example would indicate a need for further teaching? a. Fixed costs would include accreditation fees. b. Fixed cost would include the cost for the automated medication-dispensing system. c. Variable cost would include the nurse manager‘s salary. d. Variable cost would include the salary expense for registered nurses. ANS: D Variable costs would include the salary expense for registered nurses because their number can change. DIF: Analysis REF: p. 326 MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A nurse manager has calculated that providing 75 hours of direct nursing care per day requires that 120 hours must actually be worked by nursing staff. The manager is involved in: (select all that apply) a. developing the capital budget. b. applying productivity metric. c. monitoring the labor budget. d. incremental budgeting processes. e. addressing budget assumptions. ANS: B, C The nurse manager is determining the amount of work produced by calculating the actual number of nursing hours worked, which is productivity metric. Budgets use productivity metrics. DIF: Application REF: p. 320 2. A nurse has recently been appointed to the position of nurse manager. To become successful in managing the unit‘s budget, the new nurse manager should: (select all that apply) a. read the financial policy manual to learn more about the organization‘s budgeting process. b. allow the nursing administration office to manage the unit‘s budget until he or she is able to complete an online financial management course. c. communicate regularly with a person in the hospital‘s finance office about interpreting budget reports. d. pay attention to only the bottom-line numbers in budget reports rather than trying to understand each line in these reports. e. discuss the process of developing budgets with other members of the management team. ANS: A, C, E Knowing the organization‘s financial policies is an important step toward understanding the organization‘s budget process. Building a relationship with the finance office is fundamental to learning about the budgeting. As one participates more in the budget process, one‘s understanding of the process and related responsibilities is enhanced. DIF: Application REF: p. 323, Box 18-3 COMPLETION 1. The financial plan required for the distribution of resources and expenses is a . ANS: budget A budget is an organization‘s financial plan that expresses expected expenses (such as personnel and supplies) and anticipated revenues for products and services over a defined period, usually 12 months. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 316 Chapter 19: Effective Communication and Conflict Resolution Cherry & Jacob: Contemporary Nursing: Issues, Trends, and Management, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse is listening to a patient‘s apical heart rate. The patient asks, ―Is everything okay?‖ The nurse says nothing and shrugs her shoulders. The nurse is demonstrating: a. open communication. b. filtration. c. blocking. d. false assurance. ANS: C Blocking occurs when the nurse responds with noncommittal or generalized answers. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 335 2. A teenage patient is using earphones to listen to hard rock music and is making gestures in rhythm to the music. The nurse assesses the amount of urine output in the Foley catheter and leaves the room. What communication technique is demonstrated in both of these situations? a. Blocking b. Filtration c. Empathy d. False assurance ANS: B Filtration is the unconscious exclusion of extraneous stimuli in communication. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 331 3. In today‘s world of fast, effective communication, what is the most commonly used means of societal communication? a. Facial expression b. Spoken word c. Written messages d. Electronic messaging ANS: B Verbal communication, which involves talking and listening, is the most common form of interpersonal communication. An important clue to verbal communication is the tone or inflection with which words are spoken and the general attitude used when speaking. DIF: Knowledge REF: p. 331 4. Which statement accurately describes communication? a. The components of communication are mutually exclusive. b. Communication is linear. c. Communication involves only the sender and the receiver; everything else is superficial. d. When the receiver becomes the sender, the subcomponent of communication that is in use is feedback. ANS: D Communication is a process that requires certain components, including a sender, a receiver, and a message. Effective communication is a dynamic process: With a response (feedback), the sender becomes the receiver, the receiver becomes the sender, and the message changes. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 330, Figure 19-1 5. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) has been practicing for 25 years on a unit where a newly graduated RN with a bachelor‘s degree is hired. Before the RN arrives on the unit, the LPN is heard saying, ―She‘ll try to tell everyone what to do because she makes more money. She‘ll sit at the desk and let us do all the work.‖ This is an example of a(n): a. interpretation. b. context. c. precipitating event. d. preconceived idea. ANS: D Preconceived ideas are conceptions, opinions, or thoughts that the receiver has developed before having an encounter. Such ideas can dramatically affect the receiver‘s acceptance and understanding of the message. DIF: Application REF: p. 330 6. A new mother is experiencing pain after delivering an infant with Down syndrome. The staff nurse states, ―I don‘t think she is really hurting. Let the next shift give the pain medication.‖ The team leader notices the staff nurse looks agitated and anxious and asks about any concerns in providing care to this new mom. The staff nurse admits having a stillborn infant with Down syndrome. This is an example of which component of communication? a. Personal perception b. Past experiences c. Filtration d. Preconceived idea ANS: B With past experiences that include a variety of positive, neutral, and negative events, the influence that these experiences can and will have on communication may be positive, neutral, or negative. The importance of recognizing that any reaction from the receiver may be biased by previous experience cannot be overstated. DIF: Application REF: p. 331 7. A nurse gives Dilantin intravenously with lactated Ringer‘s solution containing multivitamins. The drug precipitates and obstructs the only existing line. When the team leader informs the nurse that these drugs cannot be mixed, the nurse states, ―Everyone just pushes the medicine slowly. No one checks for compatibility. There isn‘t even a compatibility chart on the unit.‖ Which type of logical fallacy has influenced the nurse? a. Ad hominem abusive b. Appeal to common practice c. Appeal to emotion d. Appeal to tradition ANS: B An appeal to common practice occurs when the argument is made that something is okay because most people do it. DIF: Application REF: p. 336 8. An RN is consistently late to work, causing reassignment of patient care and the need for repeated shift reports. The nurse, who receives a warning for repeated tardiness, states, ―My husband left me, I have no car, no family close by, and the bus is always late, which makes me late. The nurse manager doesn‘t care how hard I try to get here, and I am raising a child by myself.‖ The nurse is using which type of logical fallacy? a. Appeal to emotion b. Appeal to tradition c. Hasty generalization d. Confusing cause and effect ANS: A An appeal to emotion is an attempt to manipulate other people‘s emotions for the purpose of avoiding the real issue. DIF: Application REF: p. 336 9. The new director of nurses has instituted ―walking rounds‖ on all nursing units, rather than the usual taped shift reports. A veteran nurse exclaims, ―She doesn‘t know how we do things here!‖ The nurse is demonstrating: a. appeal to emotion. b. appeal to tradition. c. red herring. d. straw man. ANS: B An appeal to tradition is the argument that doing things a particular way is best because they‘ve always been done that way. DIF: Application REF: p. 336 10. A male nurse hired to work in the emergency department is observed throwing a contaminated needle into the trash can. The team leader reprimands the nurse for not appropriately disposing of sharps. The nurse states, ―You don‘t care that I threw the needle in the trash. You just want an all-female staff,‖ putting the team leader in a defensive position. This communication technique is known as: a. straw man. b. red herring. c. slippery slope. d. confusing cause and effect. ANS: B A red herring is the introduction of an irrelevant topic for the purpose of diverting attention away from the real issue. DIF: Application REF: pp. 336-337 11. A nurse who was recently certified in chemotherapy administration fails to check compatibility of phenytoin (Dilantin) before injecting into a continuous infusion of D5W leading to occlusion of the line. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates a red herring? a. The nurse is upset and states, ―I am sure I have injected this before without a problem‖ and the supervisor interprets this to mean the nurse often take shortcuts. b. The nurse states, ―You are just upset because I am certified in chemotherapy administration and you are not.‖ c. ―The nurse who started the IV didn‘t get a blood return but determined the IV was the patient‘s—that is the problem.‖ d. ―This drug always occludes the line because it is so viscous.‖ ANS: B The nurse diverts attention away from the issue of not checking compatibility to introduce an irrelevant topic of chemotherapy administration certification which is not related to this situation. DIF: Application REF: pp. 336-337 12. During a health history interview, the nurse listens to a patient relating the precipitating events that led to the onset of chest pain. She focuses her attention on the patient, makes eye contact, and acknowledges what the patient has to say. The nurse is exhibiting: a. assertive communication. b. active listening. c. empathy. d. passive communication. ANS: B In active listening a number of techniques can be used by the receiver to enhance the ability to listen; these include (1) providing undivided attention, (2) giving feedback (rephrasing), (3) making eye contact, (4) noting nonverbal messages (body language), and (5) finishing listening before one begins to speak. DIF: Comprehension REF: p. 337 13. The nurse is demonstrating active listening when: a. while assessing the patient‘s vital signs, the nurse records the data and states, ―You are improving, your vital signs are normal.‖ b. eye contact is maintained while focusing on the patient as the patient describes the current pain level and location. c. he or she states, ―I know how you feel, I recently lost my father and I am still hurting.‖ d. cultural values are in opposition to the patient but shares that ―I agree with your decision to use herbs rather than the prescribed medications.‖ ANS: B The behavior demonstrates active listening. A number of techniques can be used by the receiver to enhance the ability to listen; these include (1) providing undivided attention, (2) giving feedback (rephrasing), (3) making eye contact, (4) noting nonverbal messages (body language), and (5) finishing listening before one begins to speak. DIF: Application REF: p. 337 14. An older adult is unab