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NCLEX-PN Review Questions With Fully Explained Answers

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NCLEX-PN Review Questions With Fully Explained Answers

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NCLEX-PN Review Questions With
Fully Explained Answers

A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation. The
physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the
following outcomes after administration of this medication?



1. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements

2. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis related plaques

3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation

4. A stabilization of mood and sleep - ✔✔✔✔3. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation

Correct - A methylprednisolone infusion is the first line of treatment during an acute exacerbation and is
used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse.



A nurse knows that which of these patients are at greatest risk for a stroke?



1. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past.



2. A 75-year old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic.



3. A 40-year old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives



4. A 65-year old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease and smokes cigarettes. -
✔✔✔✔1. A 60-year old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the
past.

Correct - Common risk factors for developing stroke include: Atrial fibrillation, arteriosclerosis, previous
stroke or ischemic attack, heart surgery, valvular heart disease, diabetes, smoking, substance
abuse,obesity, sedentary lifestyle, oral contraceptive use, genetic tendency, migraines, older age, male,
African American/Hispanic/American Indian, Sickle Cell Anemia, and brain trauma. This man has the
greatest risk based on these risk factors.

,A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be
most concerned about which of these assessment findings?



1. INR is 3 seconds long

2. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute

3. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg

4. Blood pressure is 140/80 - ✔✔✔✔3. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mm/Hg

Correct - The patient is at greatest risk for an increased ICP resulting from edema 72 hours after a
stroke. A target ICP should be less than or equal to 15-20 mm/Hg



A nurse is caring for a patient scheduled to have cataract surgery. The patient asks why they developed
cataracts and how they can prevent it from happening again. What is the nurse's best response?



1. "Age is the biggest factor contributing to cataracts."

2. "Unprotected exposure to UV lights can cause cataracts"

3. "Age, eye injury, corticosteroids, and unprotected sunlight exposure are contributing factors to
cataracts."



The nurse in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing
lab results, the nurse finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and
the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?



1. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm

2. Ask the patient for a stool sample

3. Prepare to insert an NG Tube

4. Administer intramuscular morphine sulphate as ordered - ✔✔✔✔1. Start a large-bore IV in the
patient's arm

CORRECT - The nurse should suspect that the patient is haemorrhaging and will need need a fluid
replacement therapy, which requires a large bore IV.

, A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet
count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be
reported to the physician immediately?



1. Hemoglobin 11 g/dl

2. Platelet of 150,000

3. INR of 2.5

4. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L - ✔✔✔✔4. Potassium of 2.7 mEq/L

CORRECT - A potassium imbalance for a patient with a history of dysrhythmia can be life-threatening
and can lead to cardiac distress.



While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs
have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?



1. Stop the saline infusion immediately

2. Notify Physician

3. Elevate the patient's legs

4. Continue the infusion, since these are normal findings - ✔✔✔✔1. Stop the saline infusion
immediately

CORRECT - the patient has a fluid volume overload as a result of overly rapid fluid replacement. The
nurse should stop the infusion and notify the physician.



The nurse is working in a support group for clients with HIV. Which point is most important for the nurse
to stress?



1. They must inform household members of their condition

2. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed

3. They must abstain from substance use

4. They must avoid large crowds - ✔✔✔✔2. They must take their medications exactly as prescribed

CORRECT - Antiretrovirals must be taken exactly as prescribed to prevent drug-resistant strains. Even
missed doses can reduce the effectiveness of future treatment.

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Subido en
11 de agosto de 2026
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