PSY 366 Exam Two - Extra Credit Quiz Questions and Answers

PSY 366 Exam Two - Extra Credit Quiz Questions and Answers Chapter Five Quiz 1. The case of Cathy presented in your text is an example of major depressive disorder. One of the aspects of her case that clearly tells us this is more than just normal sadness is that Cathy a. Had become impaired in her ability to work b. Did not have any manic or hypomanic symptoms c. Had been separated from her husband for five years d. Felt unworthy of her latest promotion at work 2. Failure to suppress production of the hormone cortisol in response to the dexamethasone suppression test implicated a dysfunction of which system in the etiology of depression? a. Genetics b. MAO inhibition c. Neurotransmitter system d. Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis 3. What do the results of the epidemiological studies tell us about changes over time in the frequency of depression? a. Rates of depression appear to be decreasing b. Rates of bipolar disorder appear to be increasing c. Rates of depression appear to be increasing and with earlier onset d. Rates of depression appear to be increasing but with later onset 4. A report in the newspaper describes the common epidemiological finding that the rate of depression is higher among women than among men. How have researchers evaluated the validity of this finding? a. Men and women differ in their willingness to talk about their depressive symptoms b. Mental health professionals are more prone to diagnose depression in women than in men c. This gender difference is an artifact that occurs only in samples of patients that seek treatment d. This gender difference is a real one that cannot be explained by methodological or sampling differences 5. Henry has a serious episode of depression that is diagnosed as major depressive disorder. A year later he experiences an episode of mania. What is his diagnosis after this event? a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Bipolar I disorder c. Bipolar II disorder d. Cyclical major depressive disorder 6. What is the focus of interpersonal therapy for depression? a. Current relationship difficulties b. Patterns learned in childhood relationships c. Unconscious feelings for the attachment figure d. Close, dependent relationship with the therapist 7. Robert has just experienced an episode of mania. Which diagnostic label best describes his condition? a. Persistent depressive disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Major depressive disorder d. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder 8. Which of the following is an example of a somatic symptom of depression? a. Suicidal thoughts b. Sleeping problems c. Feelings of low self-worth d. Pessimistic thoughts about the future 9. The most typical seasonal pattern in depression is a. Winter b. Spring c. Summer d. Fall 10. Compared to tricyclics and MAO inhibitors, what is a major reason for the popularity of newer antidepressant drugs such as Prozac? a. Lower cost b. Fewer side effects c. Available over the counter d. More effective 11. Betty believes she is less capable than her coworkers, even though she has won many awards for her performance. She often feels lonely and believes no one wants to be her friend. Her future seems empty and meaningless. These traits characterize a. Cyclothymic disorder b. Psychotic depression c. The depressive triad d. Somatic deficits in depression 12. How do SSRI drugs produce their antidepressant effect? a. Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine b. Inhibiting reuptake of serotonin c. Blocking production of norepinephrine d. Blocking production of serotonin 13. Studies of the concordance rates for unipolar mood disorder and bipolar mood disorder in monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins suggest a. A larger role of genetic factors in bipolar mood disorder b. A larger role of genetic factors in unipolar mood disorder c. Similar concordance rates for bipolar mood disorder in MZ and DZ twins d. Similar concordance rates for unipolar mood disorder in MZ and DZ twins 14. The activity at the synapse of which of the following is most especially enhanced by medications like Prozac? a. Serotonin b. Dopamine c. Activity of the amygdala d. Activity of the cingulate gyrus 15. The first choice for treating bipolar disorders is a. An SSRI like Prozac b. Electroconvulsive therapy c. Lithium d. Cognitive therapy plus a self-help group 16. What is the estimated heritability of unipolar mood disorder? a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 17. According to the hopelessness theory of depression, what are depressed persons likely to do? a. Make external attributions for bad events b. Make unstable attributions for bad events c. Believe that events are under their control d. Believe that aversive events will occur regardless of what they do 18. A study by Kendler and his colleagues involving twins was designed to investigate the etiology of depression. What was one of the major conclusions? a. Genetics plays a small role in depression b. The environment plays a major role in depression c. Genetic factors seem to influence the effect the environment may have on depression d. Twins are relatively immune from depression as a result of the close bond that they form with each other 19. What is “dysphoric” mood? a. Elated mood b. Labile mood c. Depressed mood d. Inappropriate mood 20. Which of the following is the most typical course of major depressive disorder? a. A single episode of mania b. Several episodes of major depression c. A single episode of subclinical depression d. Cycling episodes of depression and mania 21. Brain imaging studies have identified elevated levels of resting blood flow and glucose metabolism in which area of the brain of depressed patients? a. Amygdala b. Cerebellum c. Parietal lobes d. Motor cortex 22. Individuals in what country tend to experience or express depression in terms of somatic symptoms, such as headaches, sleep problems, and lack of energy, rather than in terms of emotional problems? a. The East Coast of the United States b. Eastern Europe c. Australia d. China 23. What two response styles are emphasized by Susan Nolen-Hoeksema in her research designed to understand the duration and severity of depression? a. Social and individual b. Internal and external c. Distracting and ruminative d. Predictable and unpredictable 24. A report in a research journal describes the symptoms of a mental disorder along with information on its etiology, including a heritability of 50%. How should this finding be interpreted? a. Genetic factors and the environment contribute about equally to this disorder b. Half of the people who suffer from the disorder have a genetically caused disorder c. Half of the children of carriers of this disorder will actually develop the disorder d. Geneticists have identified half of the genes thought to be responsible for this disorder 25. Which of the following describes the term “affect”? a. A state of arousal associated with a mental disorder b. Any type of mental disorder c. Observable behaviors associated with subjective feelings d. Any type of physical or medical condition 26. A strong correlation exists between stressful life events and the onset of depression, but its difficult to interpret the relationship because a. There haven’t been enough studies b. Stress can cause depression, but depression can cause stress c. Depression is a very subjective state and thus very difficult to measure d. People are usually aware of any connection between depression and stress in their lives 27. You are running a clinical trial on a method of stimulating regions of the brain in order to relieve symptoms of depression. Given the evidence that underactivity in this region is associated with depression, you decide to start clinical trials in the a. Reticular activating system b. Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex c. Posterior occipital cortex d. Amygdala 28. To conduct linkage studies, researchers attempt to find evidence for a. An association between life events and specific disorders b. Similar rates of disorder in MZ and DZ twins c. Different rates of disorder in adopted children and their biological and adopted parents d. An association between a disorder and another trait within the same family 29. What did George Brown and Tirril Harris find when they followed women over a one-year period to study the link between depression and stressful life events? a. None of those who experienced a severe life event became depressed b. Most of those who experienced a severe life event became depressed c. Although life events and depression were related, most people who experienced such events did not become depressed d. Although life events and depression were related, the results suggested that depression actually caused the life events 30. Based on outcome studies that have evaluated the effectiveness of light therapy for seasonal depression, it appears that a. Many patients with seasonal affective disorders do respond well to light therapy b. Light therapy is an expensive but useless gimmick c. No one knows the correct dosage of light d. There is no theory to explain how light therapy could possibly work 31. What is one common epidemiological finding with respect to bipolar and depressive disorders? a. Bipolar disorder occurs in fewer people than major depressive disorder b. Pervasive depressive disorder is the most common form of mood disorder c. Bipolar and depressive disorders are the least comorbid form of mental disorders d. Bipolar and depressive disorders are equally common in the general population 32. Sal’s psychiatrist wrote a prescription for him and warned him not to eat a long list of foods, including cheese and chocolate. If Sal’s diagnosis is depression, what type of drug is likely to have been described? a. Tricyclics b. MAO inhibitors c. Anticonvulsants d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors Chapter Six Quiz 1. Under what circumstances is a panic attack said to be cued? a. When it occurs only in predictable situations b. When it occurs without warning or “out of the blue” c. When it is triggered by real, not imagined, dangers d. When it is triggered by imagined, not real, dangers 2. Among those diagnosed with an anxiety disorder a. The relapse rates are higher for men than for women b. The relapse rates are higher for women than for men c. The comorbidity rates are higher for women than for men d. The comorbidity rates are higher for men than for women 3. David Barlow suggests that anxious apprehension involves which of the following? a. Immediate danger b. Specific negative emotions c. A preoccupation with others d. A sense of uncontrollability 4. You are starting a research project in which you wish to compare everyday compulsive behavior of individuals not diagnosed with a mental disorder with the most common forms of compulsive behavior found in those diagnosed with OCD. What are the two most common forms of compulsion found in those so diagnosed? a. Eating and dressing b. Escape and avoidance c. Checking and cleaning d. Counting and collecting 5. How do clinical obsessions differ from normal obsessions? a. They differ in degree rather than kind b. Clinical obsessions are more visually oriented c. The content of the reported images is different d. Clinical obsessions are more likely to be acted upon 6. Cognitive psychologists believe that people whose threat schemas contain a high proportion of “what-if” questions a. Are more likely to have the conviction that if at first they don’t succeed, they must try again b. Usually experience personality disorders along with anxiety c. Experience a dramatic increase in negative affect, including anxiety d. Are better able to avoid the experience of anxiety by suppressing their anxious thoughts 7. What type of attachment has been reported to be associated with the development of agoraphobia? a. Secure attachment b. Insecure attachment c. Psychotic attachment d. Regressive attachment 8. What is the only anxiety disorder that does not exhibit a significant gender difference? a. Agoraphobia b. Panic disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder 9. The brain pathway that operates as a “short cut” in the detection of danger is adaptive in that it a. Provides for quicker, conscious, voluntary processing of threat b. Is primarily acquired through vicarious learning c. Interferes with the organism’s ability to respond to threat d. Allows some threats to be responded to very quickly 10. Which of the following are the categories of phobias? a. Linguistic, natural, and symbolic b. Neurotic, physical, and psychotic c. Agoraphobia, social, and specific d. Generalized, social, and specific 11. What is thought suppression? a. A symptom of panic attack b. An attention deficit caused by intrusive images c. An active attempt to stop thinking about something d. The absence of rational thinking 12. How do patients typically view their compulsions? a. As very pleasurable b. As making sense c. As senseless and irrational d. As necessary to their survival 13. Pathological worry is distinguishable from normal worry because pathological worry a. Focuses on immediate dangers b. Focuses on possible future events c. Is associated with both positive and negative affect d. Involves a feeling that the worry can’t be controlled 14. Systematic desensitization involves a. Suppression of phobic thoughts b. Insight into unconscious motivations c. Gradual exposure to the feared item while maintaining relaxation d. Dampening of physiological reactions with medication 15. Amy loves collecting coffee mugs and has been collecting them for years. At the drop of a hat, she will launch into a discussion of her collection, the price of mugs, and her plans for purchasing more mugs. Her friends say she must have obsessive-compulsive disorder. You disagree. What do you say to her friends when they ask why you disagree? a. Unlike someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder, Amy derives pleasure from this activity b. Although Amy experiences anxiety, it is the result of a deep-seated conflict c. Amy is actually suffering from depression, which she hides by engaging in mug collecting d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder is an inherited disorder and there is no evidence that other family members have the disorder 16. Based on the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), which type of anxiety disorder is the most common? a. Specific phobias b. Generalized anxiety disorder c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder d. Agoraphobia with panic attacks 17. What was the major result of the Cross-National Collaborative Panic Study? a. Panic disorder occurs in all countries studied b. Panic disorder does not exist in some of the countries included in the study c. Mental health professionals in some countries do not recognize the symptoms of panic disorder as serious problems d. Differences in language and conceptualization of symptoms made it impossible to study similarities in the diagnosis of panic 18. According to the case study of the writer presented in the textbook, why would individuals with agoraphobia feel terrified of crowds? a. They fear people b. They are paranoid c. They have low self-esteem d. They fear not being able to escape 19. You are in charge of social events at your school. You are particularly concerned about the types of events you design after reading that a. Alcohol dependence among first year college students increased the incidence of subsequent anxiety disorders b. Social isolation among first-year college students predicts later anxiety disorders c. Agoraphobia was associated with traumatic events during the first year of college d. College students have higher rates of anxiety disorders than those who do not attend college 20. In Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with work performance whereas in non-Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with a. Family or religious concerns b. Personal appearance c. Intimate relationships d. Educational achievement 21. The close relationship between symptoms of anxiety and those for depression suggests that a. Anxiety and depression are really the same emotion b. These disorders may share common etiological features c. Psychological testing is needed to tell them apart d. Anxiety and depression are not true mental disorders 22. Based on current empirical evidence, which is TRUE about treatment of anxiety disorders? a. As with other disorders, the type of treatment does not matter b. The type of treatment matters, but only for inexperienced therapists c. Certain cognitive-behavioral treatments are particularly effective for specific anxiety disorders d. Certain psychoanalytic treatments are particularly effective for specific anxiety disorders 23. Compared to anxiety, a panic attack tends to be a. Sudden b. Longer in duration c. Less intense d. Less like a normal fear response 24. In the theoretical debate around the nature of anxiety disorders, those who suggest that all anxiety disorders should be seen as the same disorder are sometimes referred to as a. Splitters b. Lumpers c. Amalgamationists d. Anxiolytics 25. What typically happens to patients with panic disorder with agoraphobia when they discontinue their medication? a. They continue to improve, but more slowly b. They experience a relapse c. They experience a recurrence of panic attacks but without agoraphobia d. They experience a recurrence of agoraphobia but without any panic attacks 26. Worry is a relatively uncontrollable sequence of negative emotional thoughts and images concerned with a. Immediate danger b. Physiological underarousal c. Absence of positive affect d. Possible future threats or dangers 27. According to David Clark’s research, people with anxiety sensitivity, or sensitivity to internal cues, would most likely be frightened by a. Stomach discomfort b. Heart palpitations c. Foot pain d. Insomnia 28. Which of the following situations is most likely to be associated with the development of a panic attack? a. Al was out walking his dog when another dog barked loudly b. When Al was four years old, he almost drowned at the beach c. Al misinterpreted a sudden increase in his heart rate as evidence of a heart attack d. Al constantly feels on edge as a result of a long list of worries at work and at home 29. An inhibitory neurotransmitter that functions to reduce levels of anxiety is called a. MAO b. Dopamine c. GABA d. Glutamate 30. Which of the following statements about anxiety is true? a. Anxiety is a more severe emotion than depression b. Anxiety is a less severe emotion than depression c. Anxiety can be adaptive at low levels d. Anxiety is always adaptive Chapter Seven Quiz 1. Which of these people is most likely to receive the diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder? a. Teresa, who is 25 pounds overweight b. Mike, whose blindness has no physical cause c. Amy, who experiences gastrointestinal problems when she is stressed d. Kevin, who imagines he has a serious defect in his physical appearance 2. The symptoms of conversion disorder often resemble a. Flu-like symptoms b. Neurological diseases c. Gastrointestinal problems d. Dissociative identity disorder 3. An event that involves actual or threatened death or serious injury to self or other may be characterized as a. Feelings of numbness b. Stress c. Traumatic stress d. Eustress 4. What symptom of dissociative fugue can be used to distinguish fugue from the other dissociative disorders? a. Malingering b. Identity confusion c. Purposeful, unplanned travel d. Inability to remember details of the past 5. The medical records of a patient contain the alexithymia. Assuming the word is accurate, what can we conclude about this patient? a. He has difficulty recognizing and expressing emotions b. He has been hostile and will not cooperate in his treatment c. He is feigning an illness in order to take on the sick role d. He does not take responsibility for his actions and constantly blames others 6. A psychologist is talking about the self-blame that occurs in cases of rape. What factors tend to influence such reactions to rape? a. Cultural myths suggest that women provoke rape b. Deep seated tendencies to punish oneself for past deeds c. A natural physiological reaction seeks to restore a sense of justice d. Pre-existing disorders such as obsessive-compulsive disorder lead to self-blame 7. Rick walks into the emergency room and asks to see a doctor. He explains that he has a fever, but he does not report that he gave himself an injection of dirty water that is probably responsible for his fever. Without this information, the medical staff cannot determine the cause of Rick’s fever, so they admit him for observation. Rick is delighted because he enjoys the “sick role.” After numerous tests, the staff is still puzzled, so they call for a psychiatric consult. The psychiatrist should consider the diagnosis of a. Factitious disorder b. Somatoform or somatic symptom disorder c. Bipolar mood disorder d. Psychosomatic disorder 8. In DSM-IV, the definition of trauma specified that an event must involve not only actual or threatened death to self or others but also a. A response of intense fear, helplessness, or horror b. An inability to recall the event c. Depression and substance d. A belief that one was responsible for the event 9. What is the cause of psychogenic amnesia? a. Malingering b. Brain injury c. Emotional distress d. Neurotransmitter imbalance 10. The essential feature of behavior that will lead to diagnosis of dissociative fugue is a. Hearing voices outside of oneself b. Dissociative hallucinations c. Gradual dissociation d. Sudden unexpected travel 11. One of the greatest controversies in psychology today is the issue of recovered memories. Some individuals argue that such memories reveal past sexual abuse; others disagree. What is one of the concerns of those that raise questions about recovered memories? a. Therapists may be suggesting the existence of such memories to their clients b. Many people cannot tell the difference between what they have dreamed and reality c. Some psychotic individuals are reporting their delusions as examples of claimed sexual abuse d. Some clients are deliberately creating memories of sexual abuse in order to sue individuals against whom they have held grudges 12. Which of the following types of medication has become a “first-line” therapy for PTSD? a. Anti-anxiety medications b. Anti-hypertensive medications c. Anti-depressant medications d. Stimulant medications 13. Terry is unable to see, even though a medical examination reveals no physical problems with her eyes or brain. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hypochondriasis b. Dissociative fugue c. Conversion disorder d. Psychosomatic disorder 14. Which of the following is a characteristic of somatic symptom disorders (formerly called somatoform disorders)? a. They are the result of malingering b. They have no clear biological cause c. The symptoms are hypnotically induced d. The disorders consist of the presentation of impossible symptoms 15. Not all psychologists agree that multiple personality disorder is a psychological disorder. What is the most commonly asserted alternative hypothesis used to explain behavior described as “multiple personality disorder?” a. The patient has an affective disorder b. The patient has an organic brain dysfunction c. The patient responds to expectations by playing a role d. The patient is under the influence of psychoactive drugs 16. While in his bedroom, Zack suddenly feels as if he is in a strange and unfamiliar place. Later, he experiences the feeling that his body does not belong to him. What is Zack experiencing? a. Fugue b. Déjà vu c. Depersonalization d. Identity disorder 17. Multiple personality disorder is now known as a. Depersonalization b. Selective amnesia c. Dissociative fugue d. Dissociative identity disorder 18. The name “hysteria” (Greek for “uterus”) reflects the erroneous idea that somatic symptoms and dissociative disorders were caused by a. Confused sexual identity b. Women’s frustrated desires to have children c. Gynecological dysfunctions that cause fevers d. Women misinterpreting mild symptoms as catastrophic 19. What is the cause of psychogenic amnesia? a. Malingering b. Brain injury c. Emotional distress d. Neurotransmitter imbalance 20. Which of the following is a common characteristic of acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder? a. Flashbacks b. Sleepwalking c. Multiple personalities d. Increased parasympathetic nervous system arousal 21. In psychoanalytic theory, the symptoms of somatic symptom and dissociative disorders provide primary gain. This means that the symptoms a. Allow benefits such as missing work b. Help the patient learn the sick role c. Are more easily treated than other problems d. Protect the conscious mind from painful conflicts 22. Barbara suffers from a conversion disorder and has recently begun treatment with a Freudian therapist. What is this therapist most likely to emphasize in treating Barbara? a. Encouraging her to recall psychologically painful events b. Teaching her how to put her feelings into words c. Eliminating the reinforcers of her symptoms d. Showing her how her symptoms do not make anatomical sense 23. What is the single most common traumatic event that can lead to PTSD? a. Rape b. Losing a job c. Combat exposure d. Sudden unexpected death of a loved one 24. Alice has lost any sensitivity to pain only on the left side of her face. Why is it reasonable to suspect that Alice suffers from a conversion disorder? a. Conversion disorders often involve loss of sensitivity to pain b. Conversion disorders do not usually involve bilateral symptom c. There is no possible organic explanation for why someone would lose pain sensation in the face d. The nerves involved in pain sensation do not divide the face neatly in half 25. A flippant lack of concern about symptoms, called “la belle indifference,” is sometimes observed in patients with a. Pain disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Somatization disorder d. Psychosomatic illness 26. Which of the following is an example of a retrospective report? a. A teen describing how he likes high school b. An adult describing what high school was like c. Evaluation of a high school students’ work by several sources d. A child describing what she expects high school to be like 27. There is a dispute about the importance of trauma as a factor in the etiology of dissociative identity disorder (DID) because a. There is no agreement as to what actually constitutes trauma b. Studies of the long-term consequences of child physical or sexual abuse have found little evidence of dissociation c. It is not possible to confirm whether a person has ever experienced any trauma d. Most people diagnosed with DID deny having ever experienced trauma 28. A history of multiple, somatic complaints in the absence of organic impairments is characteristic of a. Conversion disorder b. Psychosomatic illness c. Somatization or somatic symptom disorder d. Body dysmorphic disorder 29. How would a therapist use operant behavioral approaches to treat chronic pain? a. Use pain as a punisher b. Reward successful coping and life adaptation c. Reduce reinforcement for the sick role d. Induce relaxation by using biofeedback 30. What aspect of the somatic symptom disorders (formerly called somatoform disorders) make them different from psychosomatic disorders? a. They make sense neurologically b. They are due to an actual physical illness c. They are unrelated to psychological factors d. They cannot be explained by an underlying organic impairment 31. An adjustment disorder is most likely to be associated with which of the following scenarios? a. Losing a job b. A car accident c. A natural disaster d. Uncovering repressed memories of childhood trauma 32. Which of the following is a description of what has been termed secondary victimization in cases of rape? a. Family members often ignore the victim b. Multiple diagnoses are often made following a rape c. Many cases of rape involve multiple crimes such as robbery d. Various professionals exhibit a degree of insensitivity to rape victims 33. Marjorie has just experienced a traumatic event, and she is feeling cut off from herself and her environment and reports feeling like a robot. A mental health professional would say that Marjorie is experiencing a. Derealization b. Depersonalization c. Amnesia d. Flashbacks