HAZWOPER 40 FINAL EXAM|(LATEST
2026/2027 UPDATE), | 100% CORRECT
HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATIONS &
EMERGENCY RESPONSE | OSHA-
COMPLIANT CERTIFICATION EXAM WITH
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
HAZWOPER 40 Final Exam
Hazardous Waste Operations & Emergency Response
OSHA-Compliant Certification Examination
1.
According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120, who is required to receive 40 hours of
HAZWOPER training?
A. Office staff who occasionally visit a cleanup site
B. Workers involved in hazardous substance cleanup operations at
uncontrolled hazardous waste sites
C. Emergency responders who only perform evacuation
D. Medical personnel providing first aid at a safe distance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(3)(i) requires 40 hours of initial off-site training plus three
days of supervised field experience for general site workers at uncontrolled hazardous
waste sites. These workers face direct exposure risks from hazardous substances,
unknown atmospheres, and contaminated materials. Office staff, observers, and
support personnel do not meet this exposure threshold. The regulation ensures
workers are competent in hazard recognition, PPE, decontamination, and emergency
response.
2.
,Which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) provides the highest level of
respiratory and skin protection?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
OSHA Appendix B to 29 CFR 1910.120 defines Level A PPE as providing the maximum
protection against vapors, gases, and liquids. It includes a fully encapsulating
chemical-resistant suit with SCBA. This level is used when hazards are unknown or
extremely toxic. Lower levels reduce skin or respiratory protection based on site
assessment data.
3.
What is the primary purpose of a Site Safety and Health Plan (SSHP)?
A. To document employee attendance
B. To identify all hazardous substances on site only
C. To provide a comprehensive framework for worker protection, including
hazards, PPE, decon, and emergency procedures
D. To replace the need for medical surveillance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(b)(4) requires an SSHP to define all safety, health, and
operational controls. It includes hazard analysis, PPE selection, monitoring,
decontamination, training, and emergency response. The SSHP ensures consistent
protective measures across all site personnel. It does not replace regulatory medical
surveillance requirements.
4.
Which of the following is a key component of the decontamination process for
personnel exiting a hazardous area?
A. Immediate removal of PPE without washing
B. A multi-step process including gross contamination removal, washing with
,detergent, and rinsing
C. Using the same decon solution for all chemical types
D. Skipping decon if PPE appears clean
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(k)(8) requires systematic decontamination to prevent
secondary exposure. Gross contamination must be removed first, followed by washing
and rinsing with appropriate agents. The process must match the specific hazard
involved. Skipping steps increases cross-contamination risk.
5.
Under the Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom/GHS), what information must be
included on a chemical label?
A. Manufacturer’s address only
B. Product identifier, signal word, hazard statement, pictogram,
precautionary statements, and supplier information
C. Only the chemical name
D. Expiration date and batch number only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200(f) requires standardized GHS labeling elements. These
provide immediate hazard recognition for workers. Consistent labeling improves global
chemical communication and emergency response accuracy. Missing elements violate
federal compliance requirements.
6.
Which monitoring method is used to detect oxygen deficiency in confined spaces?
A. Photoionization detector
B. Flame ionization detector
C. Oxygen meter
D. Colorimetric tube
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale:
Oxygen meters measure atmospheric oxygen concentration directly. OSHA defines
oxygen-deficient environments as below 19.5%. Other instruments detect vapors or
gases but cannot assess oxygen levels. Oxygen monitoring is critical before entry into
enclosed spaces.
7.
What is the minimum acceptable oxygen concentration for safe work atmospheres?
A. 16%
B. 17.5%
C. 19.5%
D. 21%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
OSHA identifies atmospheres below 19.5% oxygen as oxygen-deficient. At lower
levels, cognitive and physical impairment occurs rapidly. This standard protects
workers from hypoxia-related injuries. Any reading below 19.5% requires respiratory
protection and hazard controls.
8.
Which control method is most effective in the hierarchy of hazard controls?
A. PPE
B. Administrative controls
C. Engineering controls
D. Elimination of the hazard
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
NIOSH and OSHA hierarchy places elimination as the most effective control. Removing
the hazard completely eliminates exposure risk. PPE is the least effective because it
relies on correct human behavior. Engineering and administrative controls supplement
but do not surpass elimination.
9.
2026/2027 UPDATE), | 100% CORRECT
HAZARDOUS WASTE OPERATIONS &
EMERGENCY RESPONSE | OSHA-
COMPLIANT CERTIFICATION EXAM WITH
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
HAZWOPER 40 Final Exam
Hazardous Waste Operations & Emergency Response
OSHA-Compliant Certification Examination
1.
According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120, who is required to receive 40 hours of
HAZWOPER training?
A. Office staff who occasionally visit a cleanup site
B. Workers involved in hazardous substance cleanup operations at
uncontrolled hazardous waste sites
C. Emergency responders who only perform evacuation
D. Medical personnel providing first aid at a safe distance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(3)(i) requires 40 hours of initial off-site training plus three
days of supervised field experience for general site workers at uncontrolled hazardous
waste sites. These workers face direct exposure risks from hazardous substances,
unknown atmospheres, and contaminated materials. Office staff, observers, and
support personnel do not meet this exposure threshold. The regulation ensures
workers are competent in hazard recognition, PPE, decontamination, and emergency
response.
2.
,Which level of personal protective equipment (PPE) provides the highest level of
respiratory and skin protection?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
OSHA Appendix B to 29 CFR 1910.120 defines Level A PPE as providing the maximum
protection against vapors, gases, and liquids. It includes a fully encapsulating
chemical-resistant suit with SCBA. This level is used when hazards are unknown or
extremely toxic. Lower levels reduce skin or respiratory protection based on site
assessment data.
3.
What is the primary purpose of a Site Safety and Health Plan (SSHP)?
A. To document employee attendance
B. To identify all hazardous substances on site only
C. To provide a comprehensive framework for worker protection, including
hazards, PPE, decon, and emergency procedures
D. To replace the need for medical surveillance
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(b)(4) requires an SSHP to define all safety, health, and
operational controls. It includes hazard analysis, PPE selection, monitoring,
decontamination, training, and emergency response. The SSHP ensures consistent
protective measures across all site personnel. It does not replace regulatory medical
surveillance requirements.
4.
Which of the following is a key component of the decontamination process for
personnel exiting a hazardous area?
A. Immediate removal of PPE without washing
B. A multi-step process including gross contamination removal, washing with
,detergent, and rinsing
C. Using the same decon solution for all chemical types
D. Skipping decon if PPE appears clean
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(k)(8) requires systematic decontamination to prevent
secondary exposure. Gross contamination must be removed first, followed by washing
and rinsing with appropriate agents. The process must match the specific hazard
involved. Skipping steps increases cross-contamination risk.
5.
Under the Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom/GHS), what information must be
included on a chemical label?
A. Manufacturer’s address only
B. Product identifier, signal word, hazard statement, pictogram,
precautionary statements, and supplier information
C. Only the chemical name
D. Expiration date and batch number only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200(f) requires standardized GHS labeling elements. These
provide immediate hazard recognition for workers. Consistent labeling improves global
chemical communication and emergency response accuracy. Missing elements violate
federal compliance requirements.
6.
Which monitoring method is used to detect oxygen deficiency in confined spaces?
A. Photoionization detector
B. Flame ionization detector
C. Oxygen meter
D. Colorimetric tube
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale:
Oxygen meters measure atmospheric oxygen concentration directly. OSHA defines
oxygen-deficient environments as below 19.5%. Other instruments detect vapors or
gases but cannot assess oxygen levels. Oxygen monitoring is critical before entry into
enclosed spaces.
7.
What is the minimum acceptable oxygen concentration for safe work atmospheres?
A. 16%
B. 17.5%
C. 19.5%
D. 21%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
OSHA identifies atmospheres below 19.5% oxygen as oxygen-deficient. At lower
levels, cognitive and physical impairment occurs rapidly. This standard protects
workers from hypoxia-related injuries. Any reading below 19.5% requires respiratory
protection and hazard controls.
8.
Which control method is most effective in the hierarchy of hazard controls?
A. PPE
B. Administrative controls
C. Engineering controls
D. Elimination of the hazard
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
NIOSH and OSHA hierarchy places elimination as the most effective control. Removing
the hazard completely eliminates exposure risk. PPE is the least effective because it
relies on correct human behavior. Engineering and administrative controls supplement
but do not surpass elimination.
9.
