NR 507 Final Exam Advanced Pathophysiology
Practice Questions with Verified Answers 3
VERSIONS
This professional study resource is a premium test bank tailored for graduate nursing
students preparing for the Chamberlain University NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Final Examination. It features highly targeted practice questions,
100% verified answers, and comprehensive rationales mapping cellular adaptations,
renal conditions, gastrointestinal changes, and complex neurological syndromes.
Preparing with these premium test-prep materials will sharpen your diagnostic
reasoning, streamline your study sessions, and ensure you earn an A grade on your
proctored assessment.
QUESTION 1
A 28-year-old male with Marfan syndrome is at highest risk for which of the following
cardiovascular complications?
• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in fibrillin-1, leading to weakening of
the aortic wall and a high risk of aortic dissection and rupture. Mitral stenosis (B) is not
typically associated. Pulmonary embolism (C) and coronary artery disease (D) are not
primary complications.
QUESTION 2
A 35-year-old female with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome presents with joint hypermobility
and easy bruising. The primary pathophysiologic mechanism involves:
, • A. Defect in collagen synthesis
• B. Defect in fibrillin-1
• C. Deficiency of factor VIII
• D. Autoimmune destruction of connective tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of disorders caused by defects in collagen
synthesis, leading to joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and tissue fragility.
Fibrillin-1 defect (B) is Marfan syndrome.
QUESTION 3
A 5-year-old boy with neurofibromatosis type 1 presents with café-au-lait spots and
multiple neurofibromas. The genetic mutation is located on which chromosome?
• A. Chromosome 17
• B. Chromosome 22
• C. Chromosome 21
• D. Chromosome X
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neurofibromatosis type 1 is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on
chromosome 17. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is caused by a mutation on chromosome 22
(B).
QUESTION 4
A 40-year-old male with chronic granulomatous disease has recurrent infections with
catalase-positive organisms. The underlying defect is in:
, • A. Neutrophil oxidative burst
• B. T-cell function
• C. B-cell function
• D. Complement system
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by a defect in the neutrophil oxidative
burst (NADPH oxidase deficiency), impairing the killing of catalase-positive organisms. T-
cell (B) and B-cell (C) defects do not cause this specific pattern.
QUESTION 5
A 30-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is found to have a
deficiency of C2 complement. This deficiency is associated with:
• A. Increased risk of autoimmune diseases
• B. Increased risk of bacterial infections
• C. Increased risk of viral infections
• D. Decreased risk of autoimmune diseases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deficiencies in early complement components (C1, C2, C4) are strongly
associated with an increased risk of autoimmune diseases, particularly SLE. Bacterial
infections (B) are more associated with deficiencies in late complement components.
QUESTION 6
A 60-year-old male with squamous cell lung cancer develops hypercalcemia. The most
likely mechanism is:
, • A. Production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
• B. Increased bone resorption due to metastasis
• C. Increased renal calcium reabsorption
• D. Decreased vitamin D activation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Squamous cell lung cancer commonly secretes PTHrP, which mimics PTH and
causes hypercalcemia. Bone metastasis (B) is more common in breast and prostate cancer.
QUESTION 7
A 45-year-old female with chronic alcohol use disorder is admitted with
hypomagnesemia. Which of the following is the most concerning complication?
• A. Cardiac arrhythmias
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polyuria
• D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypomagnesemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes,
due to its role in stabilizing the cardiac membrane. Hypertension (B), polyuria (C), and
constipation (D) are not typical.
QUESTION 8
A 55-year-old male with severe malnutrition is started on total parenteral nutrition
(TPN). He develops weakness, confusion, and cardiac arrhythmias. The most likely cause
is:
Practice Questions with Verified Answers 3
VERSIONS
This professional study resource is a premium test bank tailored for graduate nursing
students preparing for the Chamberlain University NR 507 Advanced
Pathophysiology Final Examination. It features highly targeted practice questions,
100% verified answers, and comprehensive rationales mapping cellular adaptations,
renal conditions, gastrointestinal changes, and complex neurological syndromes.
Preparing with these premium test-prep materials will sharpen your diagnostic
reasoning, streamline your study sessions, and ensure you earn an A grade on your
proctored assessment.
QUESTION 1
A 28-year-old male with Marfan syndrome is at highest risk for which of the following
cardiovascular complications?
• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Marfan syndrome is caused by a defect in fibrillin-1, leading to weakening of
the aortic wall and a high risk of aortic dissection and rupture. Mitral stenosis (B) is not
typically associated. Pulmonary embolism (C) and coronary artery disease (D) are not
primary complications.
QUESTION 2
A 35-year-old female with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome presents with joint hypermobility
and easy bruising. The primary pathophysiologic mechanism involves:
, • A. Defect in collagen synthesis
• B. Defect in fibrillin-1
• C. Deficiency of factor VIII
• D. Autoimmune destruction of connective tissue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of disorders caused by defects in collagen
synthesis, leading to joint hypermobility, skin hyperextensibility, and tissue fragility.
Fibrillin-1 defect (B) is Marfan syndrome.
QUESTION 3
A 5-year-old boy with neurofibromatosis type 1 presents with café-au-lait spots and
multiple neurofibromas. The genetic mutation is located on which chromosome?
• A. Chromosome 17
• B. Chromosome 22
• C. Chromosome 21
• D. Chromosome X
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neurofibromatosis type 1 is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on
chromosome 17. Neurofibromatosis type 2 is caused by a mutation on chromosome 22
(B).
QUESTION 4
A 40-year-old male with chronic granulomatous disease has recurrent infections with
catalase-positive organisms. The underlying defect is in:
, • A. Neutrophil oxidative burst
• B. T-cell function
• C. B-cell function
• D. Complement system
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic granulomatous disease is caused by a defect in the neutrophil oxidative
burst (NADPH oxidase deficiency), impairing the killing of catalase-positive organisms. T-
cell (B) and B-cell (C) defects do not cause this specific pattern.
QUESTION 5
A 30-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is found to have a
deficiency of C2 complement. This deficiency is associated with:
• A. Increased risk of autoimmune diseases
• B. Increased risk of bacterial infections
• C. Increased risk of viral infections
• D. Decreased risk of autoimmune diseases
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deficiencies in early complement components (C1, C2, C4) are strongly
associated with an increased risk of autoimmune diseases, particularly SLE. Bacterial
infections (B) are more associated with deficiencies in late complement components.
QUESTION 6
A 60-year-old male with squamous cell lung cancer develops hypercalcemia. The most
likely mechanism is:
, • A. Production of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)
• B. Increased bone resorption due to metastasis
• C. Increased renal calcium reabsorption
• D. Decreased vitamin D activation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Squamous cell lung cancer commonly secretes PTHrP, which mimics PTH and
causes hypercalcemia. Bone metastasis (B) is more common in breast and prostate cancer.
QUESTION 7
A 45-year-old female with chronic alcohol use disorder is admitted with
hypomagnesemia. Which of the following is the most concerning complication?
• A. Cardiac arrhythmias
• B. Hypertension
• C. Polyuria
• D. Constipation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypomagnesemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes,
due to its role in stabilizing the cardiac membrane. Hypertension (B), polyuria (C), and
constipation (D) are not typical.
QUESTION 8
A 55-year-old male with severe malnutrition is started on total parenteral nutrition
(TPN). He develops weakness, confusion, and cardiac arrhythmias. The most likely cause
is:
