,NSG 552 Exam 1 Psychopharmacology Questions And Answers
2026/2027 Wilkes University
Q1. Which statement best defines pharmacokinetics?
A) The relationship between drug concentration and receptor response
B) The processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of a
drug
C) The ability of a drug to activate a receptor
D) The therapeutic effect produced after receptor binding
Correct Answer: B) The processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism,
and elimination of a drug
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a medication
through absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. These processes
determine drug exposure, onset, duration, and accumulation.
Q2. A medication has a long elimination half-life. Which
consequence is most likely?
A) More time is generally required to reach steady state after initiation or
dose adjustment
B) The medication is eliminated immediately after one dose
C) The medication cannot accumulate
D) Steady state occurs after the first administration
Correct Answer: A) More time is generally required to reach steady state
after initiation or dose adjustment
Rationale: Drugs with longer half-lives require more time to approach
steady-state concentration and also take longer to clear after
discontinuation. This affects titration and interpretation of therapeutic
response.
Q3. A strong CYP450 inhibitor is added to a medication that is
extensively metabolized by that enzyme. What is the most likely
result?
A) Faster metabolism and reduced drug exposure
B) Increased renal filtration of the medication
, C) Complete loss of receptor affinity
D) Reduced metabolism with potentially increased serum drug
concentrations
Correct Answer: D) Reduced metabolism with potentially increased serum
drug concentrations
Rationale: CYP inhibitors reduce metabolism of susceptible substrates. Drug
concentrations can rise, increasing adverse-effect or toxicity risk depending
on the therapeutic index and degree of inhibition.
Q4. Which property distinguishes a receptor antagonist from an
agonist?
A) An antagonist has no receptor affinity
B) An antagonist activates the receptor more strongly than a full agonist
C) An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but does not activate it
D) An antagonist permanently destroys the receptor
Correct Answer: C) An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but does not
activate it
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them and block
the effects of agonists or endogenous neurotransmitters. Agonists possess
both affinity and efficacy.
Q5. Which neurotransmitter is the principal inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
A) Dopamine
B) Glutamate
C) GABA
D) Norepinephrine
Correct Answer: C) GABA
Rationale: GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central
nervous system. Increased GABAergic activity generally decreases neuronal
excitability, whereas glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter.
Q6. Which amino acid is the biochemical precursor for serotonin
synthesis?
2026/2027 Wilkes University
Q1. Which statement best defines pharmacokinetics?
A) The relationship between drug concentration and receptor response
B) The processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of a
drug
C) The ability of a drug to activate a receptor
D) The therapeutic effect produced after receptor binding
Correct Answer: B) The processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism,
and elimination of a drug
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes what the body does to a medication
through absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. These processes
determine drug exposure, onset, duration, and accumulation.
Q2. A medication has a long elimination half-life. Which
consequence is most likely?
A) More time is generally required to reach steady state after initiation or
dose adjustment
B) The medication is eliminated immediately after one dose
C) The medication cannot accumulate
D) Steady state occurs after the first administration
Correct Answer: A) More time is generally required to reach steady state
after initiation or dose adjustment
Rationale: Drugs with longer half-lives require more time to approach
steady-state concentration and also take longer to clear after
discontinuation. This affects titration and interpretation of therapeutic
response.
Q3. A strong CYP450 inhibitor is added to a medication that is
extensively metabolized by that enzyme. What is the most likely
result?
A) Faster metabolism and reduced drug exposure
B) Increased renal filtration of the medication
, C) Complete loss of receptor affinity
D) Reduced metabolism with potentially increased serum drug
concentrations
Correct Answer: D) Reduced metabolism with potentially increased serum
drug concentrations
Rationale: CYP inhibitors reduce metabolism of susceptible substrates. Drug
concentrations can rise, increasing adverse-effect or toxicity risk depending
on the therapeutic index and degree of inhibition.
Q4. Which property distinguishes a receptor antagonist from an
agonist?
A) An antagonist has no receptor affinity
B) An antagonist activates the receptor more strongly than a full agonist
C) An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but does not activate it
D) An antagonist permanently destroys the receptor
Correct Answer: C) An antagonist has affinity for the receptor but does not
activate it
Rationale: Antagonists bind to receptors without activating them and block
the effects of agonists or endogenous neurotransmitters. Agonists possess
both affinity and efficacy.
Q5. Which neurotransmitter is the principal inhibitory
neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?
A) Dopamine
B) Glutamate
C) GABA
D) Norepinephrine
Correct Answer: C) GABA
Rationale: GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central
nervous system. Increased GABAergic activity generally decreases neuronal
excitability, whereas glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter.
Q6. Which amino acid is the biochemical precursor for serotonin
synthesis?
