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VATI GREENLIGHT PREDICTOR VERSION C ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Complete 100 Questions & Correct Detailed Answers | Brand New | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass the VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C with 100 questions and verified correct detailed answers updated for 2026/2027. This A+ Graded resource contains the brand new Version C of the Virtual ATI Comprehensive Predictor exam, covering all critical NCLEX domains including management of care, prioritization, delegation, pharmacology, medical-surgical, maternal-newborn, pediatric, and mental health nursing . Each question includes detailed rationales to strengthen clinical judgment on high-yield topics like chest tube management, digoxin toxicity, magnesium sulfate precautions, and therapeutic communication . With our Pass Guarantee, you have the definitive tool to achieve Green Light readiness and pass on your first attempt. Download your complete VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C exam instantly!

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VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C — 2026/2027 (100 Questions, Detailed Verified Answers) NCLEX-RN Readiness Assessment




VATI Greenlight Predictor
Version C


Newest Version 2026/2027
Actual Exam Complete


100 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers | A+


Aligned with the Virtual ATI Greenlight Predictor Version C
Examination Blueprint and the 2026/2027 NCLEX-RN Test Plan




Structure: 8 sections covering NCLEX-RN Client Need categories
Format: Multiple Choice (A-D) with Detailed Verified Rationales
Question Style: 80% scenario-based, 20% direct recall with calculations




Page 1

,VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C — 2026/2027 (100 Questions, Detailed Verified Answers) NCLEX-RN Readiness Assessment




VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C
Newest Version 2026/2027 — Actual Exam Complete
100 Questions and Correct Detailed Answers | A+



SECTION 1: Management of Care
Question Range: Q1 - Q15 | Total: 15 questions | Focus: Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case
Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues

Q1: A registered nurse (RN) on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients. Which
client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. A client 24 hours postoperative who has not yet ambulated
B. A client with chronic heart failure reporting new-onset dyspnea and a productive cough
[CORRECT]
C. A client receiving IV antibiotics who is due for the next dose in 30 minutes
D. A client scheduled for discharge today awaiting final instructions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the ABC framework, the client with new-onset dyspnea is the priority because
respiratory compromise can rapidly become life-threatening. The postoperative client, the scheduled
medication, and the discharge teaching are all important but not immediately threatening. Test-taking
strategy: when multiple clients need attention, assess the airway/breathing issue first, then address
tasks in order of physiological urgency (Maslow's: physiological before psychosocial/scheduled tasks).

Q2: An RN is planning care for the shift and must delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse
(LPN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following tasks is most
appropriate to delegate to the UAP?
A. Administering an oral anti-hypertensive to a stable client
B. Performing initial admission assessment on a newly admitted client
C. Assisting a stable postoperative client with ambulation and recording the response
[CORRECT]
D. Teaching a client newly diagnosed with diabetes about insulin injection technique
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: UAP scope includes activities of daily living, ambulation of stable clients, and basic
hygiene—tasks that do not require nursing judgment. Ambulating a stable postoperative client and
recording the response fits UAP scope. Medication administration, initial assessments, and teaching
require an RN. The Five Rights of Delegation: right task, right circumstance, right person, right
communication, right supervision.




Page 2

,VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C — 2026/2027 (100 Questions, Detailed Verified Answers) NCLEX-RN Readiness Assessment




Q3: A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who has decided to refuse a life-saving
blood transfusion due to religious beliefs. Which action by the nurse demonstrates
appropriate client advocacy?
A. Administer the transfusion anyway because it is life-saving
B. Inform the client they must accept the transfusion to remain in the hospital
C. Respect the client's decision, ensure understanding of consequences, document
thoroughly, and notify the provider [CORRECT]
D. Call the hospital's legal department immediately to override the refusal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse treatment, even when
life-saving. The nurse's role is to ensure the client understands the consequences, document the
refusal and the teaching provided, notify the provider, and advocate for the client's autonomy.
Administering against wishes constitutes battery. Forced treatment is unethical and illegal. Legal
consultation is appropriate but does not override client autonomy.

Q4: A client is scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy. The surgeon explains the
procedure, risks, and alternatives, and asks the nurse to witness the client's signature on
the consent form. The client appears hesitant and asks the nurse, "Is this really necessary?"
What is the nurse's best response?
A. Sign the form now; you can discuss concerns with the doctor after surgery
B. It is your choice; you have the right to refuse the surgery, and the surgeon should answer
your questions before signing [CORRECT]
C. Most clients feel nervous before surgery; just sign the form
D. I'll sign for you since the doctor already explained everything
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent requires that the client understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and
alternatives and consents voluntarily. The nurse witnesses the signature and verifies understanding
but does not obtain consent (that is the provider's responsibility). If the client has unanswered
questions, the nurse must stop the process and notify the provider to clarify. Forcing or coercing
consent is invalid and unethical.

Q5: A nurse on a busy medical unit has four clients and must prioritize care. Using Maslow's
Hierarchy of Needs, which client need should be addressed FIRST?
A. A client who is anxious about an upcoming diagnostic test
B. A client reporting chest pain and shortness of breath [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting assistance with meal selection
D. A client who wishes to discuss discharge planning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maslow's Hierarchy prioritizes physiological needs (breathing, circulation) over safety,
then psychosocial (love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization). Chest pain and shortness of breath are
physiological and potentially life-threatening, demanding priority. Anxiety, meal selection, and
discharge planning are higher-level needs addressed after physiological stability. The ABC framework
within Maslow reinforces airway/breathing/circulation first.




Page 3

, VATI Greenlight Predictor Version C — 2026/2027 (100 Questions, Detailed Verified Answers) NCLEX-RN Readiness Assessment




Q6: A nurse manager is reviewing HIPAA compliance on the unit. Which of the following
situations represents a HIPAA violation?
A. Discussing a client's care with the off-going nurse at the bedside in a private room with the
door closed
B. Accessing the medical record of a family member admitted to another unit out of
curiosity [CORRECT]
C. Giving report on a client to the oncoming nurse in a private conference room
D. Faxing client information to a consulting physician using a verified, secure fax number
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Accessing records without a legitimate need-to-know is a HIPAA violation, even if the
person is a family member. HIPAA requires that Protected Health Information (PHI) be accessed only
for treatment, payment, or operations (TPO) or with proper authorization. Discussing care at the
bedside, giving handoff report in a private area, and faxing to a verified recipient for treatment are all
appropriate. Curiosity access is a common cause of disciplinary action.

Q7: An RN delegates measuring vital signs to a UAP for a stable client. The UAP reports the
client's blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, much lower than baseline. What is the RN's best
action?
A. Tell the UAP to recheck the blood pressure in 2 hours
B. Assess the client immediately, notify the provider, and initiate appropriate interventions
[CORRECT]
C. Document the UAP's finding and continue with other clients
D. Ask the UAP to document the blood pressure and notify the next shift
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the UAP measured the vital signs, the RN retains accountability for interpreting
findings and acting on them. A blood pressure of 80/40 suggests possible hypotension/shock and
requires immediate RN assessment, provider notification, and intervention. The RN cannot delegate
clinical judgment. Rechecking in 2 hours or deferring documentation delays critical care and violates
professional standards.

Q8: A nurse is caring for a client who is a victim of intimate partner violence and discloses
that the abuser has threatened to kill her if she leaves. The client refuses to press charges.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Respect the client's decision and discharge her home
B. Provide information about safety planning and community resources, and report to
appropriate authorities as required by state law [CORRECT]
C. Convince the client to leave the relationship immediately
D. Refuse to discharge the client until she agrees to press charges
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse must respect the client's autonomy while providing safety planning, resources
(shelter, hotline), and assessing risk. Many states mandate reporting of injuries from intimate partner
violence regardless of client wishes. Forcing action or refusing discharge violates client rights. The
nurse's role is education, advocacy, resource referral, and legal compliance, not dictating the client's
choices.




Page 4

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