VO L UME
180
A GRA D E VATI G RE E N L I G H T P RE D I C TO R · 2 0 2 0 2 7
EDITION
VATI Greenlight
Predictor Exam
Newest Version 2026/2027 — 180 Verified Answers
A comprehensive NCLEX-RN readiness assessment aligned with the
Virtual ATI Greenlight Predictor examination blueprint and the 2026-
2027 NCLEX-RN Test Plan. Designed for entry-level RN candidates
preparing for licensure.
Each question includes detailed rationales with VATI-style clinical
reasoning, prioritization frameworks, and test-taking strategy notes to
reinforce clinical judgment and readiness for the NCLEX-RN.
E I G H T C L I E N T N E E D C AT E G O R I E S
Management of Care · Safety & Infection Control · Health Promotion
Psychosocial Integrity · Basic Care & Comfort · Pharmacology &
Parenteral Therapies
Reduction of Risk Potential · Physiological Adaptation
T O TAL I T EMS CO GN I T I VE MI X F O R M AT
180 Multiple-Choice 30% Recall / 50% Stem + 4 Options + Answer
Questions Application / 20% Analysis + Rationale
N CL EX- RN READI N ESS SERI ES 2 0 2 0 2 7 U P D AT E D S T A N D A R D S
,VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 2
VATI Greenlight Predictor Exam
Newest Version 2026/2027 | Real Exam 180 Questions & Correct Answers | A Grade
This examination is structured into eight sections aligned with the NCLEX-RN Client Need categories and the
Virtual ATI Greenlight Predictor blueprint. Each question presents a clinical scenario followed by four options
(A–D), the correct answer, and a comprehensive rationale with VATI/NCLEX-style clinical reasoning,
prioritization frameworks, and test-taking strategy notes. Cognitive mix: 30% recall, 50% application, 20% analysis.
Question count: 180.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE
Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues (Q1-Q27)
Q1. The RN on a medical-surgical unit is assigned four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess FIRST?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative reporting incisional pain rated 6/10.
B. A client receiving IV antibiotics with a mildly itchy IV site.
C. A client with chronic heart failure who has a respiratory rate of 32 and pink frothy sputum.
[CORRECT]
D. A client with type 2 diabetes whose blood glucose is 220 mg/dL 1 hour after eating.
Correct Answer: C. A client with chronic heart failure who has a respiratory rate of 32 and pink...
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework, the client with chronic heart failure exhibiting a respiratory rate
of 32 and pink frothy sputum is demonstrating acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate intervention. Airway and breathing take priority over circulation and comfort. Option A requires
pain management but is stable. Option B suggests a mild allergic response that should be monitored but is not
immediately life-threatening. Option D reflects expected postprandial hyperglycemia. Test-taking strategy:
when a question asks which client to assess FIRST, identify the client with the most acute threat to ABCs.
Q2. Which task is MOST appropriate for the RN to delegate to a Unlicensed Assistive Personnel
(UAP)?
A. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client how to self-administer insulin.
B. Ambulating a stable client who is 3 days postoperative from an appendectomy. [CORRECT]
C. Assessing the wound of a client who had a surgical dehiscence repair.
D. Reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with a new colostomy.
Correct Answer: B. Ambulating a stable client who is 3 days postoperative from an appendectomy.
Rationale: Ambulating a stable postoperative client is within the UAP scope of practice, as it involves routine
care for a client with a predictable condition. Option A requires initial teaching, which is the responsibility of
the RN and cannot be delegated to UAP. Option C requires wound assessment, a nursing assessment task that
cannot be delegated. Option D involves reinforcement of teaching, which can be delegated to LPN but is beyond
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
,VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 3
UAP scope. Test-taking strategy: when delegating to UAP, choose tasks that involve routine care of stable
clients with predictable outcomes, and that do not require assessment, teaching, or clinical judgment.
Q3. An RN is preparing to obtain informed consent from a client scheduled for an elective
cholecystectomy. The client states, "I'm not sure why I need this surgery." What is the MOST
appropriate action?
A. Witness the client's signature after explaining the procedure briefly.
B. Explain the surgical procedure, risks, and benefits in detail to the client.
C. Notify the surgeon that the client needs further explanation before signing. [CORRECT]
D. Have the client sign the consent and document the client's statement.
Correct Answer: C. Notify the surgeon that the client needs further explanation before signing.
Rationale: Informed consent requires that the client fully understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and
alternatives before signing. The surgeon is responsible for providing this explanation, not the nurse. When the
client expresses uncertainty, the nurse must notify the surgeon so they can return and clarify. Option A is
premature since the client does not understand. Option B is outside nursing scope — only the provider
performing the procedure can legally obtain informed consent. Option D violates the principle of informed
consent. Test-taking strategy: the nurse's role in consent is to witness the signature, ensure the client appears
competent, and notify the provider if the client has questions.
Q4. A nurse overhears a colleague discussing a client's diagnosis in the hospital elevator. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Report the colleague to the charge nurse immediately.
B. Remind the colleague about client confidentiality and HIPAA regulations. [CORRECT]
C. Document the incident in the client's medical record.
D. File an incident report with the facility's privacy officer.
Correct Answer: B. Remind the colleague about client confidentiality and HIPAA regulations.
Rationale: The first action should be to directly address the colleague and remind them of HIPAA regulations
and client confidentiality. This is a professional responsibility to advocate for client privacy and provides an
opportunity for immediate correction of the behavior. If the behavior continues or involves a serious breach,
then reporting to the charge nurse or privacy officer would be appropriate. Option C is incorrect — incident
documentation belongs in a separate report, not the client's medical record. Test-taking strategy: when a
colleague violates policy, address directly first, then escalate if needed.
Q5. An older adult client with advanced dementia is admitted with pneumonia. The family states
the client would not want aggressive treatment. There is no advance directive on file. What is the
BEST action for the nurse?
A. Respect the family's wishes and limit antibiotics to comfort measures only.
B. Initiate full treatment until an advance directive can be obtained.
C. Notify the healthcare provider and request a Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order.
D. Continue prescribed treatment and notify social services for advance care planning. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D. Continue prescribed treatment and notify social services for advance care pla...
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
, VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 4
Rationale: Without a written advance directive, the nurse must continue prescribed treatment while advocating
for advance care planning. Option A is incorrect — without legal documentation, the family's verbal report
cannot override the treatment plan. Option B is partially correct but does not address the family's concerns.
Option C requires a physician's order and family/legal guardian consent. Option D is the most comprehensive —
continuing treatment while involving social services to facilitate advance care planning addresses both the legal
and ethical aspects. Test-taking strategy: when advance directives are absent, continue treatment while initiating
the process to establish the client's wishes through proper channels.
Q6. Which client should be assigned to the LPN/LVN rather than the RN?
A. A client who is 6 hours post-coronary artery bypass graft with unstable vital signs.
B. A client admitted with acute gastrointestinal bleeding requiring fluid resuscitation.
C. A stable client receiving oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. [CORRECT]
D. A client newly diagnosed with heart failure requiring extensive teaching.
Correct Answer: C. A stable client receiving oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection.
Rationale: The LPN/LVN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes. A
client receiving oral antibiotics for a UTI is stable with an expected treatment trajectory. Option A involves a
critically ill postoperative client requiring frequent assessment and complex interventions — RN appropriate.
Option B involves an unstable client with active bleeding requiring RN-level care. Option D involves extensive
teaching for a new diagnosis, which is within the RN scope. Test-taking strategy: assign stable, predictable
clients with routine care needs to the LPN; reserve unstable, complex, or teaching-intensive clients for the RN.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client being discharged after a total hip replacement. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching PRIOR to discharge?
A. "I will use a raised toilet seat to prevent hip flexion beyond 90 degrees."
B. "I should sleep on my operative side with a pillow between my legs." [CORRECT]
C. "I will not cross my legs at the knees or ankles when sitting."
D. "I should avoid bending forward to put on my shoes and socks."
Correct Answer: B. "I should sleep on my operative side with a pillow between my legs."
Rationale: Sleeping on the operative side after a total hip replacement places the prosthesis at risk for
dislocation due to adduction and potential excessive flexion. Clients should sleep on the non-operative side with
a pillow between the legs to maintain abduction. Options A, C, and D all reflect correct hip precautions.
Test-taking strategy: in discharge teaching questions, identify the statement that contradicts the established
precautions — for hip replacement, avoid adduction (crossing legs), flexion beyond 90 degrees, and sleeping on
the operative side.
Q8. A nurse suspects that a 4-year-old child brought to the clinic has signs of physical abuse. What
is the PRIORITY action?
A. Confront the parents about the suspected abuse.
B. Document the findings and report to Child Protective Services. [CORRECT]
C. Wait for additional evidence before taking action.
D. Discuss the suspicions with the healthcare provider only.
Correct Answer: B. Document the findings and report to Child Protective Services.
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
180
A GRA D E VATI G RE E N L I G H T P RE D I C TO R · 2 0 2 0 2 7
EDITION
VATI Greenlight
Predictor Exam
Newest Version 2026/2027 — 180 Verified Answers
A comprehensive NCLEX-RN readiness assessment aligned with the
Virtual ATI Greenlight Predictor examination blueprint and the 2026-
2027 NCLEX-RN Test Plan. Designed for entry-level RN candidates
preparing for licensure.
Each question includes detailed rationales with VATI-style clinical
reasoning, prioritization frameworks, and test-taking strategy notes to
reinforce clinical judgment and readiness for the NCLEX-RN.
E I G H T C L I E N T N E E D C AT E G O R I E S
Management of Care · Safety & Infection Control · Health Promotion
Psychosocial Integrity · Basic Care & Comfort · Pharmacology &
Parenteral Therapies
Reduction of Risk Potential · Physiological Adaptation
T O TAL I T EMS CO GN I T I VE MI X F O R M AT
180 Multiple-Choice 30% Recall / 50% Stem + 4 Options + Answer
Questions Application / 20% Analysis + Rationale
N CL EX- RN READI N ESS SERI ES 2 0 2 0 2 7 U P D AT E D S T A N D A R D S
,VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 2
VATI Greenlight Predictor Exam
Newest Version 2026/2027 | Real Exam 180 Questions & Correct Answers | A Grade
This examination is structured into eight sections aligned with the NCLEX-RN Client Need categories and the
Virtual ATI Greenlight Predictor blueprint. Each question presents a clinical scenario followed by four options
(A–D), the correct answer, and a comprehensive rationale with VATI/NCLEX-style clinical reasoning,
prioritization frameworks, and test-taking strategy notes. Cognitive mix: 30% recall, 50% application, 20% analysis.
Question count: 180.
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE
Advocacy, Delegation, Prioritization, Case Management, Continuity of Care, & Legal/Ethical Issues (Q1-Q27)
Q1. The RN on a medical-surgical unit is assigned four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess FIRST?
A. A client who is 2 days postoperative reporting incisional pain rated 6/10.
B. A client receiving IV antibiotics with a mildly itchy IV site.
C. A client with chronic heart failure who has a respiratory rate of 32 and pink frothy sputum.
[CORRECT]
D. A client with type 2 diabetes whose blood glucose is 220 mg/dL 1 hour after eating.
Correct Answer: C. A client with chronic heart failure who has a respiratory rate of 32 and pink...
Rationale: Using the ABC priority framework, the client with chronic heart failure exhibiting a respiratory rate
of 32 and pink frothy sputum is demonstrating acute pulmonary edema, a life-threatening condition requiring
immediate intervention. Airway and breathing take priority over circulation and comfort. Option A requires
pain management but is stable. Option B suggests a mild allergic response that should be monitored but is not
immediately life-threatening. Option D reflects expected postprandial hyperglycemia. Test-taking strategy:
when a question asks which client to assess FIRST, identify the client with the most acute threat to ABCs.
Q2. Which task is MOST appropriate for the RN to delegate to a Unlicensed Assistive Personnel
(UAP)?
A. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client how to self-administer insulin.
B. Ambulating a stable client who is 3 days postoperative from an appendectomy. [CORRECT]
C. Assessing the wound of a client who had a surgical dehiscence repair.
D. Reinforcing discharge instructions for a client with a new colostomy.
Correct Answer: B. Ambulating a stable client who is 3 days postoperative from an appendectomy.
Rationale: Ambulating a stable postoperative client is within the UAP scope of practice, as it involves routine
care for a client with a predictable condition. Option A requires initial teaching, which is the responsibility of
the RN and cannot be delegated to UAP. Option C requires wound assessment, a nursing assessment task that
cannot be delegated. Option D involves reinforcement of teaching, which can be delegated to LPN but is beyond
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
,VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 3
UAP scope. Test-taking strategy: when delegating to UAP, choose tasks that involve routine care of stable
clients with predictable outcomes, and that do not require assessment, teaching, or clinical judgment.
Q3. An RN is preparing to obtain informed consent from a client scheduled for an elective
cholecystectomy. The client states, "I'm not sure why I need this surgery." What is the MOST
appropriate action?
A. Witness the client's signature after explaining the procedure briefly.
B. Explain the surgical procedure, risks, and benefits in detail to the client.
C. Notify the surgeon that the client needs further explanation before signing. [CORRECT]
D. Have the client sign the consent and document the client's statement.
Correct Answer: C. Notify the surgeon that the client needs further explanation before signing.
Rationale: Informed consent requires that the client fully understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and
alternatives before signing. The surgeon is responsible for providing this explanation, not the nurse. When the
client expresses uncertainty, the nurse must notify the surgeon so they can return and clarify. Option A is
premature since the client does not understand. Option B is outside nursing scope — only the provider
performing the procedure can legally obtain informed consent. Option D violates the principle of informed
consent. Test-taking strategy: the nurse's role in consent is to witness the signature, ensure the client appears
competent, and notify the provider if the client has questions.
Q4. A nurse overhears a colleague discussing a client's diagnosis in the hospital elevator. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A. Report the colleague to the charge nurse immediately.
B. Remind the colleague about client confidentiality and HIPAA regulations. [CORRECT]
C. Document the incident in the client's medical record.
D. File an incident report with the facility's privacy officer.
Correct Answer: B. Remind the colleague about client confidentiality and HIPAA regulations.
Rationale: The first action should be to directly address the colleague and remind them of HIPAA regulations
and client confidentiality. This is a professional responsibility to advocate for client privacy and provides an
opportunity for immediate correction of the behavior. If the behavior continues or involves a serious breach,
then reporting to the charge nurse or privacy officer would be appropriate. Option C is incorrect — incident
documentation belongs in a separate report, not the client's medical record. Test-taking strategy: when a
colleague violates policy, address directly first, then escalate if needed.
Q5. An older adult client with advanced dementia is admitted with pneumonia. The family states
the client would not want aggressive treatment. There is no advance directive on file. What is the
BEST action for the nurse?
A. Respect the family's wishes and limit antibiotics to comfort measures only.
B. Initiate full treatment until an advance directive can be obtained.
C. Notify the healthcare provider and request a Do-Not-Resuscitate (DNR) order.
D. Continue prescribed treatment and notify social services for advance care planning. [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D. Continue prescribed treatment and notify social services for advance care pla...
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
, VATI Greenlight Predictor — 180 Questions & Verified Answers | 2026/2027 Page 4
Rationale: Without a written advance directive, the nurse must continue prescribed treatment while advocating
for advance care planning. Option A is incorrect — without legal documentation, the family's verbal report
cannot override the treatment plan. Option B is partially correct but does not address the family's concerns.
Option C requires a physician's order and family/legal guardian consent. Option D is the most comprehensive —
continuing treatment while involving social services to facilitate advance care planning addresses both the legal
and ethical aspects. Test-taking strategy: when advance directives are absent, continue treatment while initiating
the process to establish the client's wishes through proper channels.
Q6. Which client should be assigned to the LPN/LVN rather than the RN?
A. A client who is 6 hours post-coronary artery bypass graft with unstable vital signs.
B. A client admitted with acute gastrointestinal bleeding requiring fluid resuscitation.
C. A stable client receiving oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. [CORRECT]
D. A client newly diagnosed with heart failure requiring extensive teaching.
Correct Answer: C. A stable client receiving oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection.
Rationale: The LPN/LVN scope of practice includes caring for stable clients with predictable outcomes. A
client receiving oral antibiotics for a UTI is stable with an expected treatment trajectory. Option A involves a
critically ill postoperative client requiring frequent assessment and complex interventions — RN appropriate.
Option B involves an unstable client with active bleeding requiring RN-level care. Option D involves extensive
teaching for a new diagnosis, which is within the RN scope. Test-taking strategy: assign stable, predictable
clients with routine care needs to the LPN; reserve unstable, complex, or teaching-intensive clients for the RN.
Q7. A nurse is caring for a client being discharged after a total hip replacement. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching PRIOR to discharge?
A. "I will use a raised toilet seat to prevent hip flexion beyond 90 degrees."
B. "I should sleep on my operative side with a pillow between my legs." [CORRECT]
C. "I will not cross my legs at the knees or ankles when sitting."
D. "I should avoid bending forward to put on my shoes and socks."
Correct Answer: B. "I should sleep on my operative side with a pillow between my legs."
Rationale: Sleeping on the operative side after a total hip replacement places the prosthesis at risk for
dislocation due to adduction and potential excessive flexion. Clients should sleep on the non-operative side with
a pillow between the legs to maintain abduction. Options A, C, and D all reflect correct hip precautions.
Test-taking strategy: in discharge teaching questions, identify the statement that contradicts the established
precautions — for hip replacement, avoid adduction (crossing legs), flexion beyond 90 degrees, and sleeping on
the operative side.
Q8. A nurse suspects that a 4-year-old child brought to the clinic has signs of physical abuse. What
is the PRIORITY action?
A. Confront the parents about the suspected abuse.
B. Document the findings and report to Child Protective Services. [CORRECT]
C. Wait for additional evidence before taking action.
D. Discuss the suspicions with the healthcare provider only.
Correct Answer: B. Document the findings and report to Child Protective Services.
NCLEX-RN Readiness Series · 2026/2027 Updated Standards A Grade Practice Examination
