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NURS 222 Week 1 Practice Test 2026 | High-Yield Study Guide | Graded A+

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NURS 222 Week 1 Practice Test 2026 | High-Yield Study Guide | Graded A+ 1. What is the primary nursing intervention when a client is placed in seclusion due to being a danger to others? A. Teach the client relaxation techniques & effectiveness coping strategies to deal w/ anger. B. Provide the client w/ privacy to maintain confidentiality. C. Have little contact w/ the client to decrease stimulation. D. Maintain contact & assure the client that seclusion will maintain the client's safety. Answer: D. Maintain contact & assure the client that seclusion will maintain the client's safety. Rationale: Maintaining contact and reassuring the client of safety is the priority nursing intervention during seclusion. 2. On which client would a nurse on an in-patient psychiatric unit appropriately use physical or chemical restraints? A. A client who is hostile and threatening the staff and other clients. B. A client was noncompliant with medications and treatment. C. A client who is intrusive and demanding and requires added attention. D. A client who splits staff and manipulates other clients. Answer: A. A client who is hostile and threatening the staff and other clients. Rationale: Restraints are appropriate when a client poses an immediate danger to self or others. 3. Describe the ethical obligation of a healthcare worker when a client makes threats against an identifiable individual. A. The healthcare worker must report all client behavior to family members. B. The healthcare worker should ignore threats if the client is experiencing hallucinations. C. The healthcare worker has an ethical obligation to warn the potential victim if a client makes specific threats toward someone who is identifiable. D. The healthcare worker can only intervene if the client shows signs of self-harm. Answer: C. The healthcare worker has an ethical obligation to warn the potential victim if a client makes specific threats toward someone who is identifiable. Rationale: The duty to warn requires healthcare workers to protect identifiable potential victims of a client's specific threats. 4. Describe how the DSM-5 contributes to the care planning process for clients with mental health disorders. A. The DSM-5 provides a list of medications for mental health disorders. B. The DSM-5 focuses solely on historical perspectives of mental health. C. The DSM-5 is primarily used for client education and does not influence care planning. D. The DSM-5 assists nurses in planning care by providing diagnostic criteria and expected assessment findings. Answer: D. The DSM-5 assists nurses in planning care by providing diagnostic criteria and expected assessment findings. Rationale: The DSM-5 provides standardized diagnostic criteria and expected findings that guide nursing care planning. 5. The nurse is interviewing a client who reports insomnia and 'feelings of hopelessness.' During the interview, the client states, 'I just don't want to do this anymore.' Which question by the nurse is the priority to communicate to the client? A. 'Do you have employment and health insurance?' B. 'Do you have a plan to kill yourself?' C. 'Tell me about your family support.' D. 'Do you use any recreational drugs or alcohol?' Answer: B. 'Do you have a plan to kill yourself?' Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation with a specific plan is the priority when a client expresses hopelessness. 6. A nurse manager on the psychiatric unit discusses the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) with a group of staff members. Which statement by the nurse manager reflects the primary purpose of the manual? A. It provides clinicians with a classification of mental disorders and guidelines to aid diagnosis. B. It lists medications approved for each mental health disorder. C. It focuses on historical perspectives of mental illness. D. It is used only for client education and billing purposes. Answer: A. It provides clinicians with a classification of mental disorders and guidelines to aid diagnosis. Rationale: The DSM-5 is the standard classification system that provides diagnostic criteria for mental disorders. 7. Which therapeutic communication technique involves repeating the main idea of what the client has said? A. Restating B. Reflecting C. Clarifying D. Summarizing Answer: A. Restating Rationale: Restating repeats the main idea of the client's message to confirm understanding. 8. A nurse is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder. Which symptom is most characteristic? A. Persistent, excessive worry about multiple events B. Fear of specific objects or situations C. Sudden episodes of intense fear D. Repetitive, intrusive thoughts Answer: A. Persistent, excessive worry about multiple events Rationale: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by chronic, excessive worry about various aspects of life. 9. Which medication class is commonly used as first-line treatment for major depressive disorder? A. Antipsychotics B. SSRIs C. Benzodiazepines D. Mood stabilizers Answer: B. SSRIs Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are first-line pharmacotherapy for major depressive disorder. 10. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? A. Tell the client the voices are not real B. Ask the client what the voices are saying C. Ignore the client's reports of voices D. Restrict the client's activities Answer: B. Ask the client what the voices are saying Rationale: Asking about the content of hallucinations helps assess for command hallucinations and safety risks.

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LADWP ELECTRICAL CRAFT HELPER EXAM
2026 – PRACTICE QUESTIONS, VERIFIED
ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES

1. Which knot is universally used for easy tie and untie applications, and
never jams or slips if properly tied?



A. Clove Hitch

B. Bowline

C. Square Knot

D. Figure Eight Knot



Answer: B. Bowline

Rationale: The bowline forms a strong, fixed loop that will not constrict under
load, making it the universal knot for easy tie and untie applications.



2. In a series circuit, what happens when one component fails as an open
circuit?



A. The circuit continues operating at reduced voltage

B. The circuit remains fully functional

C. The entire circuit stops functioning

D. Voltage drops across each component



Answer: C. The entire circuit stops functioning

Rationale: A series circuit has only one path for current flow, so an open
circuit in any component breaks the path and stops current throughout the
entire circuit.

,3. According to Ohm's Law, what is the current in a circuit with 120 volts and
12 ohms of resistance?



A. 5 amperes

B. 8 amperes

C. 10 amperes

D. 12 amperes



Answer: C. 10 amperes

Rationale: Ohm's Law states I = V/R, so 120 volts divided by 12 ohms equals
10 amperes.



4. What does "THHN" insulation rating indicate about a conductor?



A. Suitable for outdoor direct burial

B. Rated for high-temperature, dry locations inside conduit

C. Intended for low-voltage signaling cable

D. Flexible cord sets only



Answer: B. Rated for high-temperature, dry locations inside conduit

Rationale: THHN stands for Thermoplastic High Heat-resistant Nylon-coated
and is rated for dry, high-temperature environments within conduit.



5. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when working on or
near exposed energized electrical conductors?



A. Leather gloves only

,B. Safety glasses only

C. Rubber insulating gloves with leather protectors

D. Hard hat only



Answer: C. Rubber insulating gloves with leather protectors

Rationale: Rubber insulating gloves provide electrical shock protection and
must be worn with leather protectors to shield the rubber from physical
damage.



6. The "4-to-1" ladder safety rule states that for every 4 feet of ladder height,
the base should be placed:



A. 1 foot away from the wall

B. 2 feet away from the wall

C. 3 feet away from the wall

D. 4 feet away from the wall



Answer: A. 1 foot away from the wall

Rationale: A 4:1 ratio ensures proper ladder angle for safe climbing, so a 4-
foot ladder height requires the base to be 1 foot from the supporting surface.



7. Which hand tool is best for bending small gauge wire with precision?



A. Lineman's pliers

B. Needle-nose pliers

C. Channel-lock pliers

D. Wire cutters

, Answer: B. Needle-nose pliers

Rationale: Needle-nose pliers have a fine tip that provides precise control for
bending small gauge wires.



8. According to OSHA standards, what is the minimum approach distance for
unqualified persons near energized overhead power lines up to 50 kV?



A. 5 feet

B. 10 feet

C. 15 feet

D. 20 feet



Answer: B. 10 feet

Rationale: OSHA requires unqualified persons to maintain a minimum
approach distance of 10 feet from energized overhead power lines up to 50
kV.



9. What is the primary purpose of a circuit breaker in an electrical system?



A. To increase voltage

B. To protect conductors from overcurrent

C. To convert AC to DC

D. To measure resistance



Answer: B. To protect conductors from overcurrent

Rationale: A circuit breaker automatically opens the circuit when current
exceeds a safe level, protecting conductors from damage due to overcurrent.

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