P R I M A RY C A R E O F T H E O L D E R A D U LT · O B J E C T I V E A S S E S S M E N T A+ VERIFIED
NR 601 Final Exam Prep Test Bank — Complete
Official Exam Test Bank
150 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
Assessment & Management of Common Geriatric
01 Health Promotion & Disease Prevention in Older Adults 02
Syndromes
03 Chronic Disease Management in the Older Adult 04 Pharmacology & Polypharmacy in Aging
05 Mental Health, Cognition & End-of-Life Care 06 Health Policy, Ethics & Care Coordination
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in primary care of the older adult — from health promotion and disease prevention and geriatric syndromes to
chronic disease management, pharmacology, polypharmacy, mental health, cognition, end-of-life care, health policy, ethics, and
care coordination. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the Chamberlain NR 601 final exam, with full
rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PA S S I N G S C O R E LEVEL F O R M AT
80% Advanced (Graduate Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention in Older
Adults
Q1. A 72-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic for her annual wellness visit. She lives
independently, walks 30 minutes daily, and has no chronic conditions. She asks the nurse practitioner what
cancer screening she should continue. Which response is most appropriate based on current guidelines?
A. Continue colorectal cancer screening through age 75 and discuss breast cancer screening individualized to
her health status and preferences
B. Discontinue all cancer screenings because she is over 70 and the risks outweigh the benefits
C. Continue all cancer screenings annually including Pap, mammography, and colonoscopy until age 85
D. Switch to chest CT screening for lung cancer because she is at increased risk with age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends colorectal cancer screening through age 75, with shared decision-making for ages 76
to 85. Breast cancer screening should be individualized for women 75 and older based on health status and life expectancy.
Cervical cancer screening can be discontinued at 65 if prior results are adequate. Discontinuing all screenings ignores
potential benefits in healthy older adults.
Q2. An 81-year-old male with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and mild osteoarthritis asks about starting an
exercise program. He has been sedentary for the past year. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Begin with high-intensity interval training to rapidly improve cardiovascular fitness
B. Avoid exercise until cleared by a cardiologist because he has multiple comorbidities
C. Start with 10-minute walks twice daily and gradually increase to 150 minutes of moderate activity per week
D. Limit activity to resistance training only because aerobic exercise worsens arthritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older adults with chronic conditions should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
weekly, starting gradually and incorporating balance and strength training. Beginning with short walks respects his
deconditioned status. High-intensity training is unsafe for sedentary older adults. Cardiology clearance is not routinely
required, and aerobic exercise actually improves arthritis outcomes.
Q3. A 76-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her daughter, who reports the patient has lost 8 pounds in
the past 3 months without trying. The patient lives alone and reports decreased appetite. Which screening tool
should the nurse practitioner use first to assess her nutritional risk?
A. Body Mass Index calculation alone, because weight loss is the only relevant measure
B. Geriatric Depression Scale, because depression is the only cause of weight loss in older adults
C. Mini Nutritional Assessment Short Form (MNA-SF), which screens for risk of malnutrition in older adults
D. Comprehensive metabolic panel, because laboratory values alone determine nutritional status
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The MNA-SF is a validated screening tool specifically designed to identify older adults at risk of malnutrition,
incorporating food intake, weight loss, mobility, psychological stress, and BMI. BMI alone does not capture recent weight
loss or its causes. Depression screening is appropriate but secondary to nutritional risk. Lab values reflect physiologic status
but do not screen for malnutrition comprehensively.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
,Q4. An 84-year-old male presents for a routine visit. He reports smoking one pack of cigarettes daily for 60
years and asks if he should stop now. What is the best response based on evidence-based guidelines?
A. Recommend smoking cessation because quitting reduces cardiovascular risk and mortality even in adults
over 80
B. Tell him quitting at this age offers no benefit because the damage is already done
C. Suggest switching to e-cigarettes as a safer alternative at his age
D. Recommend reducing to half a pack daily rather than quitting completely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Smoking cessation benefits older adults by reducing cardiovascular events, respiratory infections, and mortality
within months of quitting. Age is not a contraindication to cessation. E-cigarettes are not FDA-approved for cessation and
carry their own risks. Reducing without quitting is less effective than complete cessation.
Q5. A 70-year-old female is being discharged after a hip fracture repair. She lives in a two-story home with the
bathroom on the second floor. Her daughter asks what fall prevention measures should be implemented at home.
What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Suggest she continue using stairs to maintain mobility and prevent deconditioning
B. Recommend installing a stair lift immediately to allow continued second-floor access
C. Recommend she stay on the first floor and use a bedside commode to avoid stairs during recovery
D. Suggest relocating to a single-level assisted living facility permanently
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After hip fracture repair, the patient should avoid stairs during recovery to prevent falls. Using a bedside
commode on the first floor reduces fall risk while preserving independence. Stair use increases fall risk during the healing
period. A stair lift may be considered later but is not the immediate priority. Assisted living relocation is premature without
further assessment.
Q6. A 68-year-old male with hypertension and hyperlipidemia is in for a routine visit. His blood pressure today
is 148/88 mmHg. He takes lisinopril 20 mg daily. What is the most appropriate action based on current
guidelines for older adults?
A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily to achieve a target blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg
B. Confirm home blood pressure readings over 1 to 2 weeks before adjusting therapy, targeting less than
150/90 mmHg
C. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily immediately based on this single elevated reading
D. Discontinue lisinopril because his blood pressure is acceptable for his age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines for adults 65 and older with hypertension recommend confirming elevated office readings
with home monitoring before adjusting therapy. The target for older adults is generally less than 150/90 mmHg, with
individualization based on comorbidities. Acting on a single reading risks overtreatment. Discontinuing therapy would be
inappropriate given the elevated pressure.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, Q7. A 78-year-old female reports urinary leakage when coughing and sneezing. She has had three vaginal
deliveries and reports no urinary urgency. What is the most appropriate first-line intervention for her urinary
incontinence?
A. Refer for surgical intervention with a midurethral sling procedure
B. Start oxybutynin 5 mg daily to relax the bladder muscle
C. Recommend intermittent self-catheterization to ensure complete bladder emptying
D. Recommend pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises) and weight management as first-line therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stress urinary incontinence in older women should first be treated with conservative measures including pelvic
floor muscle training and weight management. Surgery is reserved for refractory cases. Oxybutynin treats urge
incontinence and may worsen cognitive function in older adults. Self-catheterization is appropriate for retention, not stress
incontinence.
Q8. A 75-year-old male reports decreased hearing in his left ear over the past 6 months. He has trouble
understanding conversation in noisy environments. Otoscopic examination is unremarkable. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Recommend daily cerumenolytic drops because cerumen impaction is the most likely cause
B. Schedule an MRI of the brain to rule out an acoustic neuroma as the first-line test
C. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids for suspected sudden sensorineural hearing loss
D. Refer for audiology evaluation including pure-tone audiometry and speech discrimination testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Progressive asymmetric hearing loss warrants audiology evaluation with pure-tone audiometry and speech
discrimination testing to characterize the type and degree of loss. Cerumen impaction was ruled out by otoscopy. MRI is
indicated only if asymmetric sensorineural loss is confirmed. Steroids are used for sudden sensorineural loss, not gradual
decline over 6 months.
Q9. An 82-year-old female is brought by her family for evaluation of progressive vision loss. She reports
difficulty reading and recognizing faces. She has bilateral drusen on fundoscopic examination. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Open-angle glaucoma, characterized by peripheral vision loss and increased intraocular pressure
B. Age-related macular degeneration, characterized by central vision loss and drusen on fundoscopy
C. Diabetic retinopathy, characterized by neovascularization and microaneurysms
D. Cataract, characterized by gradual clouding of the lens and progressive visual dimming
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Age-related macular degeneration presents with central vision loss, difficulty reading and recognizing faces,
and drusen on fundoscopic examination. Glaucoma causes peripheral vision loss, diabetic retinopathy requires a diabetes
history, and cataracts cause gradual blurring without drusen. The presence of drusen and central vision symptoms confirms
AMD.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
NR 601 Final Exam Prep Test Bank — Complete
Official Exam Test Bank
150 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
Assessment & Management of Common Geriatric
01 Health Promotion & Disease Prevention in Older Adults 02
Syndromes
03 Chronic Disease Management in the Older Adult 04 Pharmacology & Polypharmacy in Aging
05 Mental Health, Cognition & End-of-Life Care 06 Health Policy, Ethics & Care Coordination
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in primary care of the older adult — from health promotion and disease prevention and geriatric syndromes to
chronic disease management, pharmacology, polypharmacy, mental health, cognition, end-of-life care, health policy, ethics, and
care coordination. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for the Chamberlain NR 601 final exam, with full
rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PA S S I N G S C O R E LEVEL F O R M AT
80% Advanced (Graduate Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Health Promotion & Disease Prevention in Older
Adults
Q1. A 72-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic for her annual wellness visit. She lives
independently, walks 30 minutes daily, and has no chronic conditions. She asks the nurse practitioner what
cancer screening she should continue. Which response is most appropriate based on current guidelines?
A. Continue colorectal cancer screening through age 75 and discuss breast cancer screening individualized to
her health status and preferences
B. Discontinue all cancer screenings because she is over 70 and the risks outweigh the benefits
C. Continue all cancer screenings annually including Pap, mammography, and colonoscopy until age 85
D. Switch to chest CT screening for lung cancer because she is at increased risk with age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends colorectal cancer screening through age 75, with shared decision-making for ages 76
to 85. Breast cancer screening should be individualized for women 75 and older based on health status and life expectancy.
Cervical cancer screening can be discontinued at 65 if prior results are adequate. Discontinuing all screenings ignores
potential benefits in healthy older adults.
Q2. An 81-year-old male with hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and mild osteoarthritis asks about starting an
exercise program. He has been sedentary for the past year. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Begin with high-intensity interval training to rapidly improve cardiovascular fitness
B. Avoid exercise until cleared by a cardiologist because he has multiple comorbidities
C. Start with 10-minute walks twice daily and gradually increase to 150 minutes of moderate activity per week
D. Limit activity to resistance training only because aerobic exercise worsens arthritis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Older adults with chronic conditions should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity activity
weekly, starting gradually and incorporating balance and strength training. Beginning with short walks respects his
deconditioned status. High-intensity training is unsafe for sedentary older adults. Cardiology clearance is not routinely
required, and aerobic exercise actually improves arthritis outcomes.
Q3. A 76-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her daughter, who reports the patient has lost 8 pounds in
the past 3 months without trying. The patient lives alone and reports decreased appetite. Which screening tool
should the nurse practitioner use first to assess her nutritional risk?
A. Body Mass Index calculation alone, because weight loss is the only relevant measure
B. Geriatric Depression Scale, because depression is the only cause of weight loss in older adults
C. Mini Nutritional Assessment Short Form (MNA-SF), which screens for risk of malnutrition in older adults
D. Comprehensive metabolic panel, because laboratory values alone determine nutritional status
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The MNA-SF is a validated screening tool specifically designed to identify older adults at risk of malnutrition,
incorporating food intake, weight loss, mobility, psychological stress, and BMI. BMI alone does not capture recent weight
loss or its causes. Depression screening is appropriate but secondary to nutritional risk. Lab values reflect physiologic status
but do not screen for malnutrition comprehensively.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
,Q4. An 84-year-old male presents for a routine visit. He reports smoking one pack of cigarettes daily for 60
years and asks if he should stop now. What is the best response based on evidence-based guidelines?
A. Recommend smoking cessation because quitting reduces cardiovascular risk and mortality even in adults
over 80
B. Tell him quitting at this age offers no benefit because the damage is already done
C. Suggest switching to e-cigarettes as a safer alternative at his age
D. Recommend reducing to half a pack daily rather than quitting completely
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Smoking cessation benefits older adults by reducing cardiovascular events, respiratory infections, and mortality
within months of quitting. Age is not a contraindication to cessation. E-cigarettes are not FDA-approved for cessation and
carry their own risks. Reducing without quitting is less effective than complete cessation.
Q5. A 70-year-old female is being discharged after a hip fracture repair. She lives in a two-story home with the
bathroom on the second floor. Her daughter asks what fall prevention measures should be implemented at home.
What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Suggest she continue using stairs to maintain mobility and prevent deconditioning
B. Recommend installing a stair lift immediately to allow continued second-floor access
C. Recommend she stay on the first floor and use a bedside commode to avoid stairs during recovery
D. Suggest relocating to a single-level assisted living facility permanently
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After hip fracture repair, the patient should avoid stairs during recovery to prevent falls. Using a bedside
commode on the first floor reduces fall risk while preserving independence. Stair use increases fall risk during the healing
period. A stair lift may be considered later but is not the immediate priority. Assisted living relocation is premature without
further assessment.
Q6. A 68-year-old male with hypertension and hyperlipidemia is in for a routine visit. His blood pressure today
is 148/88 mmHg. He takes lisinopril 20 mg daily. What is the most appropriate action based on current
guidelines for older adults?
A. Increase lisinopril to 40 mg daily to achieve a target blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg
B. Confirm home blood pressure readings over 1 to 2 weeks before adjusting therapy, targeting less than
150/90 mmHg
C. Add amlodipine 5 mg daily immediately based on this single elevated reading
D. Discontinue lisinopril because his blood pressure is acceptable for his age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines for adults 65 and older with hypertension recommend confirming elevated office readings
with home monitoring before adjusting therapy. The target for older adults is generally less than 150/90 mmHg, with
individualization based on comorbidities. Acting on a single reading risks overtreatment. Discontinuing therapy would be
inappropriate given the elevated pressure.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, Q7. A 78-year-old female reports urinary leakage when coughing and sneezing. She has had three vaginal
deliveries and reports no urinary urgency. What is the most appropriate first-line intervention for her urinary
incontinence?
A. Refer for surgical intervention with a midurethral sling procedure
B. Start oxybutynin 5 mg daily to relax the bladder muscle
C. Recommend intermittent self-catheterization to ensure complete bladder emptying
D. Recommend pelvic floor muscle training (Kegel exercises) and weight management as first-line therapy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stress urinary incontinence in older women should first be treated with conservative measures including pelvic
floor muscle training and weight management. Surgery is reserved for refractory cases. Oxybutynin treats urge
incontinence and may worsen cognitive function in older adults. Self-catheterization is appropriate for retention, not stress
incontinence.
Q8. A 75-year-old male reports decreased hearing in his left ear over the past 6 months. He has trouble
understanding conversation in noisy environments. Otoscopic examination is unremarkable. What is the most
appropriate next step?
A. Recommend daily cerumenolytic drops because cerumen impaction is the most likely cause
B. Schedule an MRI of the brain to rule out an acoustic neuroma as the first-line test
C. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids for suspected sudden sensorineural hearing loss
D. Refer for audiology evaluation including pure-tone audiometry and speech discrimination testing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Progressive asymmetric hearing loss warrants audiology evaluation with pure-tone audiometry and speech
discrimination testing to characterize the type and degree of loss. Cerumen impaction was ruled out by otoscopy. MRI is
indicated only if asymmetric sensorineural loss is confirmed. Steroids are used for sudden sensorineural loss, not gradual
decline over 6 months.
Q9. An 82-year-old female is brought by her family for evaluation of progressive vision loss. She reports
difficulty reading and recognizing faces. She has bilateral drusen on fundoscopic examination. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Open-angle glaucoma, characterized by peripheral vision loss and increased intraocular pressure
B. Age-related macular degeneration, characterized by central vision loss and drusen on fundoscopy
C. Diabetic retinopathy, characterized by neovascularization and microaneurysms
D. Cataract, characterized by gradual clouding of the lens and progressive visual dimming
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Age-related macular degeneration presents with central vision loss, difficulty reading and recognizing faces,
and drusen on fundoscopic examination. Glaucoma causes peripheral vision loss, diabetic retinopathy requires a diabetes
history, and cataracts cause gradual blurring without drusen. The presence of drusen and central vision symptoms confirms
AMD.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
