A+ VERIFIED
NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NSG 552 Psychopharmacology Exam 1
— Complete
Official Exam
50 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Neurobiology & Neurotransmitters
02 Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
03 Antidepressants & Mood Stabilizers
04 Antipsychotics & Anxiolytics
05 ADHD Medications & Special Populations
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in psychopharmacology — from neurobiology and neurotransmitter systems to pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, antidepressants,
mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, anxiolytics, ADHD medications, and special population considerations. This original study bank targets application and
analysis skills for NSG 552 Exam 1, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (Graduate Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: NEUROBIOLOGY & NEUROTRANSMITTERS
Q1. A patient with major depressive disorder shows reduced hippocampal volume on imaging. The PMHNP explains that chronic
stress and elevated cortisol contribute to this finding primarily through effects on which neurotrophic factor?
A. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)
B. Nerve growth factor exclusively in the periphery
C. Ciliary neurotrophic factor only
D. Glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor without CNS role
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic stress and hypercortisolemia suppress BDNF expression in the hippocampus, contributing to reduced neurogenesis and
volume loss. Many antidepressants increase BDNF, supporting the neurotrophic hypothesis of depression.
Q2. A patient experiences profound sedation and weight gain after starting an antipsychotic. These effects are most closely linked
to antagonism at which receptor?
A. Dopamine D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway
B. Serotonin 5-HT1A receptor
C. Histamine H1 receptor
D. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Histamine H1 receptor blockade produces sedation and increased appetite/weight gain. D2 antagonism is more associated with
extrapyramidal symptoms; 5-HT1A agonism can be anxiolytic or antidepressant.
Q3. A clinician reviews the mesolimbic dopamine pathway in relation to positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Hyperactivity in this
pathway is most directly associated with:
A. Cognitive deficits and negative symptoms
B. Extrapyramidal side effects
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Delusions and hallucinations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The mesolimbic pathway (VTA to nucleus accumbens) is linked to positive psychotic symptoms. Mesocortical hypoactivity relates to
negative/cognitive symptoms; nigrostriatal blockade causes EPS; tuberoinfundibular blockade elevates prolactin.
Q4. A patient with anxiety reports that benzodiazepines provide rapid relief. The PMHNP explains that these agents enhance the
effect of which inhibitory neurotransmitter at its ionotropic receptor?
A. Glutamate at the NMDA receptor
B. GABA at the GABA-A receptor
C. Serotonin at the 5-HT2A receptor
D. Dopamine at the D2 receptor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-A receptor, increasing chloride influx and neuronal inhibition, which
produces anxiolysis, sedation, and anticonvulsant effects.
Q5. A patient develops muscle rigidity, tremor, and bradykinesia after starting a first-generation antipsychotic. These
extrapyramidal symptoms result from dopamine D2 blockade in which pathway?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
B. Mesocortical pathway
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
D. Nigrostriatal pathway
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nigrostriatal pathway regulates motor control. D2 blockade here produces parkinsonism, dystonia, and akathisia. Mesolimbic
blockade treats positive symptoms; tuberoinfundibular blockade causes hyperprolactinemia.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NSG 552 Psychopharmacology Exam 1
— Complete
Official Exam
50 Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
50 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Neurobiology & Neurotransmitters
02 Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
03 Antidepressants & Mood Stabilizers
04 Antipsychotics & Anxiolytics
05 ADHD Medications & Special Populations
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in psychopharmacology — from neurobiology and neurotransmitter systems to pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, antidepressants,
mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, anxiolytics, ADHD medications, and special population considerations. This original study bank targets application and
analysis skills for NSG 552 Exam 1, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
80% Advanced (Graduate Nursing) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: NEUROBIOLOGY & NEUROTRANSMITTERS
Q1. A patient with major depressive disorder shows reduced hippocampal volume on imaging. The PMHNP explains that chronic
stress and elevated cortisol contribute to this finding primarily through effects on which neurotrophic factor?
A. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)
B. Nerve growth factor exclusively in the periphery
C. Ciliary neurotrophic factor only
D. Glial cell line-derived neurotrophic factor without CNS role
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic stress and hypercortisolemia suppress BDNF expression in the hippocampus, contributing to reduced neurogenesis and
volume loss. Many antidepressants increase BDNF, supporting the neurotrophic hypothesis of depression.
Q2. A patient experiences profound sedation and weight gain after starting an antipsychotic. These effects are most closely linked
to antagonism at which receptor?
A. Dopamine D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway
B. Serotonin 5-HT1A receptor
C. Histamine H1 receptor
D. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Histamine H1 receptor blockade produces sedation and increased appetite/weight gain. D2 antagonism is more associated with
extrapyramidal symptoms; 5-HT1A agonism can be anxiolytic or antidepressant.
Q3. A clinician reviews the mesolimbic dopamine pathway in relation to positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Hyperactivity in this
pathway is most directly associated with:
A. Cognitive deficits and negative symptoms
B. Extrapyramidal side effects
C. Hyperprolactinemia
D. Delusions and hallucinations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The mesolimbic pathway (VTA to nucleus accumbens) is linked to positive psychotic symptoms. Mesocortical hypoactivity relates to
negative/cognitive symptoms; nigrostriatal blockade causes EPS; tuberoinfundibular blockade elevates prolactin.
Q4. A patient with anxiety reports that benzodiazepines provide rapid relief. The PMHNP explains that these agents enhance the
effect of which inhibitory neurotransmitter at its ionotropic receptor?
A. Glutamate at the NMDA receptor
B. GABA at the GABA-A receptor
C. Serotonin at the 5-HT2A receptor
D. Dopamine at the D2 receptor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-A receptor, increasing chloride influx and neuronal inhibition, which
produces anxiolysis, sedation, and anticonvulsant effects.
Q5. A patient develops muscle rigidity, tremor, and bradykinesia after starting a first-generation antipsychotic. These
extrapyramidal symptoms result from dopamine D2 blockade in which pathway?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
B. Mesocortical pathway
C. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
D. Nigrostriatal pathway
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nigrostriatal pathway regulates motor control. D2 blockade here produces parkinsonism, dystonia, and akathisia. Mesolimbic
blockade treats positive symptoms; tuberoinfundibular blockade causes hyperprolactinemia.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
