PASS NUR 231 EXAM 1 – ADULT NURSING II (2026)
ACTUAL QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS |
ILLINOIS STATE UNIVERSITY (A+ GUARANTEE)
NUR 231 — Adult Nursing II
Comprehensive Exam 1 Practice Paper — 2026
Institution: Illinois State University
Course: NUR 231 — Adult Nursing II
Academic Year: 2026
Table of Contents
1. Introduction and Nursing Priorities — Questions 1–20
2. Core Adult Nursing Concepts — Questions 21–60
3. Acute Care and Perioperative Nursing — Questions 61–80
4. Cardiovascular, Hematologic, and Transfusion Care — Questions 81–105
5. Respiratory and Oxygenation — Questions 106–125
6. Gastrointestinal, Hepatic, and Nutritional Disorders — Questions 126–150
7. Oncology and Immune-System Disorders — Questions 151–175
8. End-of-Life and Palliative Nursing — Questions 176–185
9. Applied Clinical Scenarios — Questions 186–195
10. Critical Thinking and Review — Questions 196–200
Section 1 — Introduction and Nursing Priorities
Question 1
A nurse receives report on four adult clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A postoperative client with oxygen saturation of 86%
C. A client requesting assistance with breakfast
D. A client awaiting discharge instructions
,Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia and represents an
immediate threat to oxygenation. Airway and breathing take priority over pain management,
routine activities, and discharge teaching.
Question 2
Which nursing action best demonstrates use of the nursing process?
A. Administering medications according to the medication record
B. Assessing the client, identifying problems, planning care, implementing interventions, and
evaluating outcomes
C. Following the physician's treatment plan without modification
D. Completing documentation before assessing the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic framework consisting of assessment, diagnosis,
planning, implementation, and evaluation. It allows care to be individualized and modified
according to the client's response.
Question 3
A client suddenly develops severe dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Determine the client's last oral intake
C. Assess airway and breathing
D. Review the medication history
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea may indicate a life-threatening respiratory problem. The nurse first
assesses airway and breathing before completing less urgent data collection.
Question 4
Which finding most strongly indicates an unstable client?
A. Heart rate 82/min
B. New-onset confusion with hypotension
C. Chronic back pain
D. Temperature 37.1°C
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: New neurologic changes combined with hypotension may indicate inadequate
cerebral perfusion, shock, or another acute deterioration. This requires immediate assessment and
intervention.
Question 5
Which intervention represents primary prevention?
A. Rehabilitation after a stroke
B. Screening mammography
C. Administration of an influenza vaccine
D. Physical therapy after hip replacement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention attempts to prevent disease before it occurs. Vaccination is a
classic primary-prevention intervention.
Question 6
A nurse uses SBAR when communicating a deteriorating client's condition. What does the "B"
represent?
A. Baseline
B. Background
C. Breathing
D. Behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: SBAR represents Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
Background provides relevant clinical history and context.
Question 7
Which statement by a nurse reflects clinical judgment?
A. "I will perform the same intervention for every client."
B. "The client's change in mental status may indicate decreased oxygenation, so I will reassess
vital signs and oxygen saturation."
C. "The provider is responsible for interpreting assessment findings."
D. "I will wait until the next shift to report the change."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment involves recognizing cues, interpreting their significance, and
selecting appropriate actions. A new mental-status change warrants further assessment for
potentially serious causes.
, Question 8
A client is receiving a medication that may cause hypotension. Which assessment is most
important?
A. Nail length
B. Blood pressure and symptoms of poor perfusion
C. Hair texture
D. Dietary preferences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension can compromise tissue perfusion. Blood pressure, mental status, urine
output, skin findings, and other indicators of perfusion should be monitored.
Question 9
Which client statement demonstrates understanding of informed consent?
A. "The nurse explained all surgical risks to me."
B. "The provider explained the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, and I had an
opportunity to ask questions."
C. "My family signed for me because the procedure is routine."
D. "I signed because the nurse told me I had to."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse generally verifies that the client appears informed and
that the signature is voluntary.
Question 10
A client refuses a prescribed treatment. What is the nurse's best initial response?
A. "You must follow the treatment plan."
B. "Why are you refusing?"
C. "Tell me what concerns you have about the treatment."
D. "I will document that you are noncompliant."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Exploring the client's concerns promotes autonomy and may reveal fear,
misunderstanding, cultural considerations, or inadequate information. Judgmental language
should be avoided.
Question 11
ACTUAL QUESTIONS & VERIFIED ANSWERS |
ILLINOIS STATE UNIVERSITY (A+ GUARANTEE)
NUR 231 — Adult Nursing II
Comprehensive Exam 1 Practice Paper — 2026
Institution: Illinois State University
Course: NUR 231 — Adult Nursing II
Academic Year: 2026
Table of Contents
1. Introduction and Nursing Priorities — Questions 1–20
2. Core Adult Nursing Concepts — Questions 21–60
3. Acute Care and Perioperative Nursing — Questions 61–80
4. Cardiovascular, Hematologic, and Transfusion Care — Questions 81–105
5. Respiratory and Oxygenation — Questions 106–125
6. Gastrointestinal, Hepatic, and Nutritional Disorders — Questions 126–150
7. Oncology and Immune-System Disorders — Questions 151–175
8. End-of-Life and Palliative Nursing — Questions 176–185
9. Applied Clinical Scenarios — Questions 186–195
10. Critical Thinking and Review — Questions 196–200
Section 1 — Introduction and Nursing Priorities
Question 1
A nurse receives report on four adult clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic arthritis reporting pain of 6/10
B. A postoperative client with oxygen saturation of 86%
C. A client requesting assistance with breakfast
D. A client awaiting discharge instructions
,Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 86% indicates significant hypoxemia and represents an
immediate threat to oxygenation. Airway and breathing take priority over pain management,
routine activities, and discharge teaching.
Question 2
Which nursing action best demonstrates use of the nursing process?
A. Administering medications according to the medication record
B. Assessing the client, identifying problems, planning care, implementing interventions, and
evaluating outcomes
C. Following the physician's treatment plan without modification
D. Completing documentation before assessing the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nursing process is a systematic framework consisting of assessment, diagnosis,
planning, implementation, and evaluation. It allows care to be individualized and modified
according to the client's response.
Question 3
A client suddenly develops severe dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Obtain a complete health history
B. Determine the client's last oral intake
C. Assess airway and breathing
D. Review the medication history
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea may indicate a life-threatening respiratory problem. The nurse first
assesses airway and breathing before completing less urgent data collection.
Question 4
Which finding most strongly indicates an unstable client?
A. Heart rate 82/min
B. New-onset confusion with hypotension
C. Chronic back pain
D. Temperature 37.1°C
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: New neurologic changes combined with hypotension may indicate inadequate
cerebral perfusion, shock, or another acute deterioration. This requires immediate assessment and
intervention.
Question 5
Which intervention represents primary prevention?
A. Rehabilitation after a stroke
B. Screening mammography
C. Administration of an influenza vaccine
D. Physical therapy after hip replacement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention attempts to prevent disease before it occurs. Vaccination is a
classic primary-prevention intervention.
Question 6
A nurse uses SBAR when communicating a deteriorating client's condition. What does the "B"
represent?
A. Baseline
B. Background
C. Breathing
D. Behavior
Correct answer: B
Rationale: SBAR represents Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
Background provides relevant clinical history and context.
Question 7
Which statement by a nurse reflects clinical judgment?
A. "I will perform the same intervention for every client."
B. "The client's change in mental status may indicate decreased oxygenation, so I will reassess
vital signs and oxygen saturation."
C. "The provider is responsible for interpreting assessment findings."
D. "I will wait until the next shift to report the change."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clinical judgment involves recognizing cues, interpreting their significance, and
selecting appropriate actions. A new mental-status change warrants further assessment for
potentially serious causes.
, Question 8
A client is receiving a medication that may cause hypotension. Which assessment is most
important?
A. Nail length
B. Blood pressure and symptoms of poor perfusion
C. Hair texture
D. Dietary preferences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension can compromise tissue perfusion. Blood pressure, mental status, urine
output, skin findings, and other indicators of perfusion should be monitored.
Question 9
Which client statement demonstrates understanding of informed consent?
A. "The nurse explained all surgical risks to me."
B. "The provider explained the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, and I had an
opportunity to ask questions."
C. "My family signed for me because the procedure is routine."
D. "I signed because the nurse told me I had to."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The provider performing the procedure is responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse generally verifies that the client appears informed and
that the signature is voluntary.
Question 10
A client refuses a prescribed treatment. What is the nurse's best initial response?
A. "You must follow the treatment plan."
B. "Why are you refusing?"
C. "Tell me what concerns you have about the treatment."
D. "I will document that you are noncompliant."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Exploring the client's concerns promotes autonomy and may reveal fear,
misunderstanding, cultural considerations, or inadequate information. Judgmental language
should be avoided.
Question 11
