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Comprehensive Nursing Exit Practice Exam with 100 questions and verified answers graded A+ new!! Updated 2026

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Comprehensive Nursing Exit Practice Exam with 100 questions and verified answers graded A+ new!! Updated 2026

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Comprehensive Nursing Exit
Practice Exam with 100 questions
and verified answers graded A+
new!! Updated 2026

1. A nurse finds a client on the floor after an unwitnessed fall. What is the nurse’s first action?

A. Complete an incident report

B. Assess the client for injury

C. Notify the provider

D. Move the client back to bed immediately



Answer: B. Assess the client for injury

Rationale: The priority is client safety and assessment of airway, breathing, circulation, pain, and
injury before moving the client or notifying others.



2. A client has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which precaution is required?

A. Surgical mask for staff

B. N95 respirator and negative-pressure room

C. Positive-pressure room

D. Gloves only



Answer: B. N95 respirator and negative-pressure room

Rationale: Pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator and a negative-
pressure room.



3. Which action contaminates a sterile field?

A. Reaching over the sterile field

B. Keeping sterile supplies above waist level

,C. Opening the sterile package away from the body first

D. Pouring solution with the label facing the palm



Answer: A. Reaching over the sterile field

Rationale: Reaching over a sterile field contaminates it because microorganisms can fall onto the
field.



4. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to assistive personnel?

A. Teach a client how to use an incentive spirometer

B. Assess a client’s pain level

C. Ambulate a stable postoperative client

D. Change a sterile wound dressing



Answer: C. Ambulate a stable postoperative client

Rationale: Assistive personnel may perform routine tasks for stable clients. Assessment, teaching,
and sterile procedures require licensed nursing staff.



5. Before using a newly inserted nasogastric tube for feeding, the nurse should first verify placement
by:

A. Aspirating gastric contents

B. Checking gastric pH

C. Obtaining radiographic confirmation

D. Injecting air and auscultating over the stomach



Answer: C. Obtaining radiographic confirmation

Rationale: X-ray confirmation is the gold standard for initial NG tube placement verification.



6. A client receiving packed RBCs develops chills, back pain, and dyspnea. What is the nurse’s priority
action?

A. Slow the transfusion

B. Stop the transfusion

C. Administer acetaminophen

,D. Flush the IV with dextrose



Answer: B. Stop the transfusion

Rationale: These are signs of a transfusion reaction. The nurse should stop the transfusion
immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline.



7. Which finding describes a stage 2 pressure injury?

A. Nonblanchable redness of intact skin

B. Partial-thickness skin loss or blister

C. Full-thickness skin loss with visible fat

D. Exposed bone or tendon



Answer: B. Partial-thickness skin loss or blister

Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of dermis and may appear as an
open ulcer or blister.



8. Which intervention helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infection?

A. Keep the drainage bag below bladder level

B. Disconnect the tubing daily

C. Irrigate the catheter routinely

D. Clamp the catheter every 2 hours



Answer: A. Keep the drainage bag below bladder level

Rationale: Keeping the bag below bladder level prevents backflow of urine and decreases infection
risk.



9. Which statement by a client using home oxygen indicates correct understanding?

A. “I will use petroleum jelly for dry nares.”

B. “I will keep oxygen at least 10 feet away from open flames.”

C. “I can adjust the flow rate whenever I feel short of breath.”

D. “I should use wool blankets to keep warm.”

, Answer: B. “I will keep oxygen at least 10 feet away from open flames.”

Rationale: Oxygen supports combustion. Clients should avoid flames, smoking, and flammable
products.



10. A client is scheduled for surgery but states, “I don’t really understand what the surgeon is going
to do.” What should the nurse do?

A. Explain the surgical procedure in detail

B. Ask the family to explain the procedure

C. Notify the provider

D. Ask the client to sign the consent anyway



Answer: C. Notify the provider

Rationale: The provider is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and benefits. The nurse
witnesses consent but does not provide the surgical explanation.



11. Which instruction should the nurse give about using an incentive spirometer?

A. “Exhale forcefully into the device.”

B. “Inhale slowly and hold your breath for several seconds.”

C. “Use it once each shift.”

D. “Use it only when you feel short of breath.”



Answer: B. “Inhale slowly and hold your breath for several seconds.”

Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes lung expansion and helps prevent atelectasis.



12. A fire starts in a client’s room. What is the nurse’s first action?

A. Activate the fire alarm

B. Rescue the client from immediate danger

C. Close all doors

D. Use a fire extinguisher



Answer: B. Rescue the client from immediate danger

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