Page 1
CEN TOXICOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027
(100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS.
Which blood test may indicate infection or inflammation and would need to be
used as part of the clinical picture with diagnosing and treating abdominal pain?
a. white blood cell (WBC) count of 5.0
b. hematocrit (HCT) of 45
c. WBC count of 28.0
d. blood sugar (BS) of 74 -- ANSWER--C: An elevated WBC count would be
indicative of infection or inflammation. The WBC count of 5.0 is normal. The
HCT and BS levels listed would also be considered within normal limits.
A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after multiple bee
stings about 30 minutes previously. He complains of itching, swollen lips, and
difficulty breathing. Wheezing and stridor are heard. What is the most
immediate treatment required?
a. epinephrine 0.1 mg intramuscularly
b. intravenous corticosteroid
c. intravenous antihistamine
d. broad-spectrum antibiotic -- ANSWER--Answer: A
The clinical picture of this patient is that of an anaphylactic reaction to bee
stings which is potentially life-threatening. The onset of symptoms within 1
, Page 2
hour after exposure to the allergen is particularly worrisome as are the laryngeal
and pulmonary signs. The airway must be established with intubation often
necessary; high-flow oxygen, cardiac monitoring, and intravenous fluids are
basics. Epinephrine given intramuscularly is the most rapidly acting agent and
should be given as soon as possible after the diagnosis of anaphylaxis and every
5 to 15 minutes thereafter as needed. Steroids and antihistamines are slower
acting than epinephrine but are often given to alleviate itching, angioedema, and
hives. There is no indication for antibiotics in this clinical situation unless
further signs and symptoms develop.
A cancer patient is seen in the emergency department with high fevers and
malaise for 2 days. She received chemotherapy about 10 days ago. Her physical
exam is not revealing but her temperature is 103°F. A CBC shows a hemoglobin
of 10 g/dL, WBC 4000 with 10% polys, 5% bands, 70% lymphs, 10% monos,
and 5% other white or unidentified cells.
Platelets are 60,000/mm3. Which of the following is NOT immediately
appropriate?
a.blood cultures from different sites
b.electrolytes, liver and renal function tests
c.eask if she has been receiving granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
d.white blood cell transfusion -- ANSWER--Answer: D
This patient has fever and neutropenia after chemotherapy. Neutropenia is
defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) under 1000/mm3, and a severe
neutropenia less than 500/mm3 is particularly dangerous. These patients must
be worked up quickly and antibiotic and possibly additional therapy started as
soon as possible since the situation may be lifethreatening. While
, Page 3
myelosuppressive drugs differ in the length of time between administration and
the nadir of the ANC, 10 to 14 days is typical. Multiple cultures from different
possible sites of origin for sepsis must be done along with chest x-ray and other
imaging as indicated by examination. Broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as
ceftazidime or imipenem/cilastatin, should be started after cultures are obtained.
She should be asked if she has been receiving G-CSF (Neupogen, Neulasta).
WBC transfusions are rarely used today since they have a very short shelf life,
do not last long in the circulation, and may cause allergic reactions.
Which statement best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
a.ARDS is caused by trauma only.
b.ARDS is sudden, progressive, and severe.
c.ARDS is caused by an illness only.
d.ARDS never results in lung scarring. -- ANSWER--Answer: B
ARDS is sudden, progressive, and severe, and can even lead to death.
Which dysrhythmia would be identified on an ECG/EKG six-second strip by a
heart rate of 76 and a PR interval of 0.24?
a.sinus tachycardia
b.first-degree atrioventricular block
c.sinus bradycardia
, Page 4
d.junctional escape rhythm -- ANSWER--B: First-degree atrioventricular block
is diagnosed partially by an EKG showing a PR interval of greater than 0.20
seconds.
After an auto accident, x-rays of the patient's leg show a transverse fracture of
the midfemur with several bone fragments surrounding the fracture site. The
skin of the leg is intact. This type fracture is called:
a.compression fracture
b.comminuted fracture
c.avulsion fracture
d.open fracture -- ANSWER--Answer: B
A fracture is a break or disruption in a bone, generally divided into closed (no
break in the skin) and open (protrusion of the bone through the skin). Fractures
may take different anatomic patterns, depending on the bone location, the nature
of the trauma and the bone density (may be diminished with osteoporosis).
Compression fractures are most common in the spine in which a fracture of one
or more vertebral bodies leads to a collapse of the spine at that location. An
avulsion fracture reflects a forceful contraction of muscle mass, which pulls a
bone fragment to break away at the tendon's insertion site. This type of fracture
is often seen with severe joint strains. This patient has a comminuted fracture in
which the trauma causes more than two separated portions of the bone. Often,
several small bony fragments are seen at the site of the break.
CEN TOXICOLOGY EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2026/2027
(100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS.
Which blood test may indicate infection or inflammation and would need to be
used as part of the clinical picture with diagnosing and treating abdominal pain?
a. white blood cell (WBC) count of 5.0
b. hematocrit (HCT) of 45
c. WBC count of 28.0
d. blood sugar (BS) of 74 -- ANSWER--C: An elevated WBC count would be
indicative of infection or inflammation. The WBC count of 5.0 is normal. The
HCT and BS levels listed would also be considered within normal limits.
A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after multiple bee
stings about 30 minutes previously. He complains of itching, swollen lips, and
difficulty breathing. Wheezing and stridor are heard. What is the most
immediate treatment required?
a. epinephrine 0.1 mg intramuscularly
b. intravenous corticosteroid
c. intravenous antihistamine
d. broad-spectrum antibiotic -- ANSWER--Answer: A
The clinical picture of this patient is that of an anaphylactic reaction to bee
stings which is potentially life-threatening. The onset of symptoms within 1
, Page 2
hour after exposure to the allergen is particularly worrisome as are the laryngeal
and pulmonary signs. The airway must be established with intubation often
necessary; high-flow oxygen, cardiac monitoring, and intravenous fluids are
basics. Epinephrine given intramuscularly is the most rapidly acting agent and
should be given as soon as possible after the diagnosis of anaphylaxis and every
5 to 15 minutes thereafter as needed. Steroids and antihistamines are slower
acting than epinephrine but are often given to alleviate itching, angioedema, and
hives. There is no indication for antibiotics in this clinical situation unless
further signs and symptoms develop.
A cancer patient is seen in the emergency department with high fevers and
malaise for 2 days. She received chemotherapy about 10 days ago. Her physical
exam is not revealing but her temperature is 103°F. A CBC shows a hemoglobin
of 10 g/dL, WBC 4000 with 10% polys, 5% bands, 70% lymphs, 10% monos,
and 5% other white or unidentified cells.
Platelets are 60,000/mm3. Which of the following is NOT immediately
appropriate?
a.blood cultures from different sites
b.electrolytes, liver and renal function tests
c.eask if she has been receiving granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
d.white blood cell transfusion -- ANSWER--Answer: D
This patient has fever and neutropenia after chemotherapy. Neutropenia is
defined as an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) under 1000/mm3, and a severe
neutropenia less than 500/mm3 is particularly dangerous. These patients must
be worked up quickly and antibiotic and possibly additional therapy started as
soon as possible since the situation may be lifethreatening. While
, Page 3
myelosuppressive drugs differ in the length of time between administration and
the nadir of the ANC, 10 to 14 days is typical. Multiple cultures from different
possible sites of origin for sepsis must be done along with chest x-ray and other
imaging as indicated by examination. Broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as
ceftazidime or imipenem/cilastatin, should be started after cultures are obtained.
She should be asked if she has been receiving G-CSF (Neupogen, Neulasta).
WBC transfusions are rarely used today since they have a very short shelf life,
do not last long in the circulation, and may cause allergic reactions.
Which statement best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
a.ARDS is caused by trauma only.
b.ARDS is sudden, progressive, and severe.
c.ARDS is caused by an illness only.
d.ARDS never results in lung scarring. -- ANSWER--Answer: B
ARDS is sudden, progressive, and severe, and can even lead to death.
Which dysrhythmia would be identified on an ECG/EKG six-second strip by a
heart rate of 76 and a PR interval of 0.24?
a.sinus tachycardia
b.first-degree atrioventricular block
c.sinus bradycardia
, Page 4
d.junctional escape rhythm -- ANSWER--B: First-degree atrioventricular block
is diagnosed partially by an EKG showing a PR interval of greater than 0.20
seconds.
After an auto accident, x-rays of the patient's leg show a transverse fracture of
the midfemur with several bone fragments surrounding the fracture site. The
skin of the leg is intact. This type fracture is called:
a.compression fracture
b.comminuted fracture
c.avulsion fracture
d.open fracture -- ANSWER--Answer: B
A fracture is a break or disruption in a bone, generally divided into closed (no
break in the skin) and open (protrusion of the bone through the skin). Fractures
may take different anatomic patterns, depending on the bone location, the nature
of the trauma and the bone density (may be diminished with osteoporosis).
Compression fractures are most common in the spine in which a fracture of one
or more vertebral bodies leads to a collapse of the spine at that location. An
avulsion fracture reflects a forceful contraction of muscle mass, which pulls a
bone fragment to break away at the tendon's insertion site. This type of fracture
is often seen with severe joint strains. This patient has a comminuted fracture in
which the trauma causes more than two separated portions of the bone. Often,
several small bony fragments are seen at the site of the break.
