Comprehensive Mock Assessment
and Expert Review for the Certified
Compounded Sterile Preparation
Technician (CSPT) Examination
2025/2026
I. Introduction and Examination Overview
The Certified Compounded Sterile Preparation Technician (\text{CSPT}^{\circledR}) credential,
conferred by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), represents the highest level
of specialized qualification for pharmacy technicians engaged in sterile compounding. Achieving
this certification validates a technician's deep knowledge and skill in mitigating the unique and
high risks associated with Compounded Sterile Preparations (CSPs), which are often
administered via routes that produce immediate physiological effects.
Preparation for the CSPT examination requires mastery of four critical domains, heavily
grounded in contemporary regulatory standards. This comprehensive mock assessment is
specifically tailored for the 2025/2026 examination cycle, reflecting the significant content
updates published in late 2023 which align the exam with the revised United States
Pharmacopeia (USP) General Chapters <$797$> (Pharmaceutical Compounding—Sterile
Preparations) and <$800$> (Hazardous Drugs—Handling in Healthcare Settings).
A. The Certified Compounded Sterile Preparation Technician (CSPT)
Credential
CSPT certification requires candidates to hold an active \text{CPhT}^{\circledR} status and meet
specific work experience requirements. Acceptable pathways include completing a
PTCB-recognized sterile compounding training program coupled with one year of full-time
continuous CSP work experience, or accumulating three years of full-time continuous CSP work
experience within the last eight years.
The CSPT examination is a rigorous, computer-based, multiple-choice assessment. Candidates
are allotted two hours to complete the 75-question examination, which includes 60 scored
questions and 15 unscored questions used for future validation. To achieve certification, a
candidate must successfully pass the exam and undergo a Competency Attestation by a
qualified supervisor. The passing scaled score for the CSPT exam is 1,400, based on a range of
possible scores from 1,000 to 1,600. Maintaining the credential requires annual recertification,
with sterile compounding continuing education hours counting toward the overall \text{CPhT}
recertification requirements.
B. Assessment Format and Regulatory Alignment
This mock assessment is structured to provide a high-fidelity experience, prioritizing
,scenario-based questions that test the application of aseptic technique, environmental control
standards, complex calculations, and regulatory compliance. The distribution of the 65
high-quality questions adheres precisely to the official PTCB Content Outline percentages. A
major emphasis is placed on Domain 3, Sterile Compounding Procedures, which constitutes
over half of the exam content.
The primary knowledge sources referenced in this assessment include the revised USP
Compounding Compendium, ASHP guidelines, and ISMP High-Alert Medication lists, consistent
with the recommended resources for exam preparation. The shift in USP <$797$> from low,
medium, and high-risk compounding to the defined Categories 1, 2, and 3 is a central theme
throughout the assessment, requiring technicians to demonstrate not only technical skill but also
a robust understanding of quality assurance protocols.
The distribution of the 65 questions is detailed below:
Table 1: CSPT Exam Content Weighting and Practice Question Distribution
Knowledge Domain PTCB Weight (%) Targeted Q Count (of 65)
1. Medications and 17% 11
Components (D1)
2. Facilities and Equipment 22% 14
(D2)
3. Sterile Compounding 53% 35
Procedures (D3)
4. Handling, Packaging, 8% 5
Storage, and Disposal (D4)
Total 100% 65
II. Mock Assessment Questions
This section presents 65 multiple-choice questions aligned with the \text{CSPT}^{\circledR}
Content Outline for the 2025/2026 examination period.
Section A: Medications and Components (11 Questions)
When preparing an IV admixture containing amphotericin B, a technician must be aware that
this medication is incompatible with which common diluent due to potential precipitation? (A)
0.9% Sodium Chloride (B) Dextrose 5% in Water (\text{D}5\text{W}) (C) Sterile Water for
Injection (\text{SWFI}) (D) Lactated Ringer's Solution
A patient receiving continuous peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN) is at risk of phlebitis. The
compounding technician must ensure the final preparation does not exceed what approximate
osmolarity? (A) 300\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L} (B) 600\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L} (C) 900\text{
mOsmol}/\text{L} (D) 1,200\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L}
Which characteristic defines a drug as having a narrow therapeutic index (\text{NTI}), requiring
extreme precision in compounding and dispensing? (A) It is frequently used in pediatric patients.
(B) It requires refrigeration for optimal stability. (C) A small difference in dose or concentration
may lead to serious therapeutic failure or adverse effects. (D) It is administered via a central
line.
Which of the following concentrated electrolytes is specifically identified on the Institute for Safe
Medication Practices (\text{ISMP}) list of High-Alert Medications, necessitating rigorous
independent double-checks prior to use in compounding? (A) Sodium Chloride 0.9% (B)
Potassium Chloride Injection (\text{KCl}) 2\text{ mEq}/\text{mL} (C) Magnesium Sulfate 50\text{
, mg}/\text{mL} (D) Sodium Bicarbonate 8.4\%
The primary reason a CSP's Beyond-Use Date (\text{BUD}) might be shorter than the maximum
microbial contamination limits set by USP <$797$> Categories is: (A) Technician error during
compounding. (B) Limited availability of stability testing equipment. (C) Drug-specific chemical
or physical stability limitations. (D) Inadequate label size.
A CSP containing Ceftriaxone must be kept out of direct light to prevent degradation. Which
stability factor is being addressed by this handling requirement? (A) Agitation (B) Closure
integrity (C) Photolysis (D) Concentration
When compounding a high-concentration Dextrose solution and a high-concentration Amino
Acid solution for total parenteral nutrition (\text{TPN}), what is the most critical risk for physical
incompatibility? (A) Oxidation of lipids. (B) Precipitation of calcium and phosphate salts. (C)
Hydrolysis of vitamins. (D) Volatilization of trace elements.
Which essential reference document provides safety information regarding the handling,
storage, and emergency spill procedures for ingredients used in sterile compounding? (A) The
Orange Book (B) Safety Data Sheet (\text{SDS}) (C) USP Pharmacists’ Pharmacopeia (D) Drug
Facts and Comparisons
A technician must confirm the therapeutic classification of concentrated Heparin. What
classification is correct for this drug? (A) Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug (NSAID) (B)
Anticoagulant (C) Vasopressor (D) Loop Diuretic
Which preparation route carries the highest risk and requires the most stringent sterility
assurance due to direct injection into the central nervous system? (A) Intramuscular (IM) (B)
Epidural (C) Intravenous Piggyback (IVPB) (D) Subcutaneous (SC)
Concentrated stock solutions of Vancomycin are typically used for compounding. If the final CSP
concentration is diluted to 5\text{ mg}/\text{mL}, what stability concern is minimized compared to
the stock solution? (A) Increased risk of precipitation. (B) Increased sensitivity to light. (C) Risk
of microbial growth. (D) Impact of concentration on chemical compatibility with other
components.
Section B: Facilities and Equipment (14 Questions)
According to USP <$797$>, which classification defines the environment required for the
Primary Engineering Control (\text{PEC}) (e.g., inside the Laminar Airflow Workbench)? (A) ISO
Class 8 (B) ISO Class 7 (C) ISO Class 6 (D) ISO Class 5
For non-hazardous sterile compounding, the buffer area (Secondary Engineering Control or
\text{SEC}) must be maintained under what minimum condition relative to the adjacent
anteroom? (A) Negative pressure of at least -0.01 inches of water column (\text{i.w.c.}) (B)
Positive pressure of at least +0.02 \text{i.w.c.} (C) Neutral pressure (0.00 \text{i.w.c.}) (D) A
minimum of 5 air changes per hour (\text{ACPH})
A Containment-Segregated Compounding Area (\text{C-SCA}) used for preparing hazardous
drugs (HDs) must maintain a minimum of how many air changes per hour (\text{ACPH})? (A) 5
\text{ACPH} (B) 12 \text{ACPH} (C) 20 \text{ACPH} (D) 30 \text{ACPH}
If a Compounding Aseptic Isolator (\text{CAI}) used for non-hazardous compounding fails its
ISO certification, how is the Beyond-Use Date (\text{BUD}) of CSPs prepared in it immediately
affected, typically falling into the limits of a Category 1 CSP? (A) BUD remains unchanged if no
microbial contamination is detected. (B) BUD is extended to the maximum stability date. (C)
BUD is limited to 12 hours at room temperature or 24 hours refrigerated. (D) All CSPs prepared
must be immediately discarded.
What is the appropriate action level for viable air sampling inside an ISO Class 5 Primary
and Expert Review for the Certified
Compounded Sterile Preparation
Technician (CSPT) Examination
2025/2026
I. Introduction and Examination Overview
The Certified Compounded Sterile Preparation Technician (\text{CSPT}^{\circledR}) credential,
conferred by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), represents the highest level
of specialized qualification for pharmacy technicians engaged in sterile compounding. Achieving
this certification validates a technician's deep knowledge and skill in mitigating the unique and
high risks associated with Compounded Sterile Preparations (CSPs), which are often
administered via routes that produce immediate physiological effects.
Preparation for the CSPT examination requires mastery of four critical domains, heavily
grounded in contemporary regulatory standards. This comprehensive mock assessment is
specifically tailored for the 2025/2026 examination cycle, reflecting the significant content
updates published in late 2023 which align the exam with the revised United States
Pharmacopeia (USP) General Chapters <$797$> (Pharmaceutical Compounding—Sterile
Preparations) and <$800$> (Hazardous Drugs—Handling in Healthcare Settings).
A. The Certified Compounded Sterile Preparation Technician (CSPT)
Credential
CSPT certification requires candidates to hold an active \text{CPhT}^{\circledR} status and meet
specific work experience requirements. Acceptable pathways include completing a
PTCB-recognized sterile compounding training program coupled with one year of full-time
continuous CSP work experience, or accumulating three years of full-time continuous CSP work
experience within the last eight years.
The CSPT examination is a rigorous, computer-based, multiple-choice assessment. Candidates
are allotted two hours to complete the 75-question examination, which includes 60 scored
questions and 15 unscored questions used for future validation. To achieve certification, a
candidate must successfully pass the exam and undergo a Competency Attestation by a
qualified supervisor. The passing scaled score for the CSPT exam is 1,400, based on a range of
possible scores from 1,000 to 1,600. Maintaining the credential requires annual recertification,
with sterile compounding continuing education hours counting toward the overall \text{CPhT}
recertification requirements.
B. Assessment Format and Regulatory Alignment
This mock assessment is structured to provide a high-fidelity experience, prioritizing
,scenario-based questions that test the application of aseptic technique, environmental control
standards, complex calculations, and regulatory compliance. The distribution of the 65
high-quality questions adheres precisely to the official PTCB Content Outline percentages. A
major emphasis is placed on Domain 3, Sterile Compounding Procedures, which constitutes
over half of the exam content.
The primary knowledge sources referenced in this assessment include the revised USP
Compounding Compendium, ASHP guidelines, and ISMP High-Alert Medication lists, consistent
with the recommended resources for exam preparation. The shift in USP <$797$> from low,
medium, and high-risk compounding to the defined Categories 1, 2, and 3 is a central theme
throughout the assessment, requiring technicians to demonstrate not only technical skill but also
a robust understanding of quality assurance protocols.
The distribution of the 65 questions is detailed below:
Table 1: CSPT Exam Content Weighting and Practice Question Distribution
Knowledge Domain PTCB Weight (%) Targeted Q Count (of 65)
1. Medications and 17% 11
Components (D1)
2. Facilities and Equipment 22% 14
(D2)
3. Sterile Compounding 53% 35
Procedures (D3)
4. Handling, Packaging, 8% 5
Storage, and Disposal (D4)
Total 100% 65
II. Mock Assessment Questions
This section presents 65 multiple-choice questions aligned with the \text{CSPT}^{\circledR}
Content Outline for the 2025/2026 examination period.
Section A: Medications and Components (11 Questions)
When preparing an IV admixture containing amphotericin B, a technician must be aware that
this medication is incompatible with which common diluent due to potential precipitation? (A)
0.9% Sodium Chloride (B) Dextrose 5% in Water (\text{D}5\text{W}) (C) Sterile Water for
Injection (\text{SWFI}) (D) Lactated Ringer's Solution
A patient receiving continuous peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN) is at risk of phlebitis. The
compounding technician must ensure the final preparation does not exceed what approximate
osmolarity? (A) 300\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L} (B) 600\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L} (C) 900\text{
mOsmol}/\text{L} (D) 1,200\text{ mOsmol}/\text{L}
Which characteristic defines a drug as having a narrow therapeutic index (\text{NTI}), requiring
extreme precision in compounding and dispensing? (A) It is frequently used in pediatric patients.
(B) It requires refrigeration for optimal stability. (C) A small difference in dose or concentration
may lead to serious therapeutic failure or adverse effects. (D) It is administered via a central
line.
Which of the following concentrated electrolytes is specifically identified on the Institute for Safe
Medication Practices (\text{ISMP}) list of High-Alert Medications, necessitating rigorous
independent double-checks prior to use in compounding? (A) Sodium Chloride 0.9% (B)
Potassium Chloride Injection (\text{KCl}) 2\text{ mEq}/\text{mL} (C) Magnesium Sulfate 50\text{
, mg}/\text{mL} (D) Sodium Bicarbonate 8.4\%
The primary reason a CSP's Beyond-Use Date (\text{BUD}) might be shorter than the maximum
microbial contamination limits set by USP <$797$> Categories is: (A) Technician error during
compounding. (B) Limited availability of stability testing equipment. (C) Drug-specific chemical
or physical stability limitations. (D) Inadequate label size.
A CSP containing Ceftriaxone must be kept out of direct light to prevent degradation. Which
stability factor is being addressed by this handling requirement? (A) Agitation (B) Closure
integrity (C) Photolysis (D) Concentration
When compounding a high-concentration Dextrose solution and a high-concentration Amino
Acid solution for total parenteral nutrition (\text{TPN}), what is the most critical risk for physical
incompatibility? (A) Oxidation of lipids. (B) Precipitation of calcium and phosphate salts. (C)
Hydrolysis of vitamins. (D) Volatilization of trace elements.
Which essential reference document provides safety information regarding the handling,
storage, and emergency spill procedures for ingredients used in sterile compounding? (A) The
Orange Book (B) Safety Data Sheet (\text{SDS}) (C) USP Pharmacists’ Pharmacopeia (D) Drug
Facts and Comparisons
A technician must confirm the therapeutic classification of concentrated Heparin. What
classification is correct for this drug? (A) Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug (NSAID) (B)
Anticoagulant (C) Vasopressor (D) Loop Diuretic
Which preparation route carries the highest risk and requires the most stringent sterility
assurance due to direct injection into the central nervous system? (A) Intramuscular (IM) (B)
Epidural (C) Intravenous Piggyback (IVPB) (D) Subcutaneous (SC)
Concentrated stock solutions of Vancomycin are typically used for compounding. If the final CSP
concentration is diluted to 5\text{ mg}/\text{mL}, what stability concern is minimized compared to
the stock solution? (A) Increased risk of precipitation. (B) Increased sensitivity to light. (C) Risk
of microbial growth. (D) Impact of concentration on chemical compatibility with other
components.
Section B: Facilities and Equipment (14 Questions)
According to USP <$797$>, which classification defines the environment required for the
Primary Engineering Control (\text{PEC}) (e.g., inside the Laminar Airflow Workbench)? (A) ISO
Class 8 (B) ISO Class 7 (C) ISO Class 6 (D) ISO Class 5
For non-hazardous sterile compounding, the buffer area (Secondary Engineering Control or
\text{SEC}) must be maintained under what minimum condition relative to the adjacent
anteroom? (A) Negative pressure of at least -0.01 inches of water column (\text{i.w.c.}) (B)
Positive pressure of at least +0.02 \text{i.w.c.} (C) Neutral pressure (0.00 \text{i.w.c.}) (D) A
minimum of 5 air changes per hour (\text{ACPH})
A Containment-Segregated Compounding Area (\text{C-SCA}) used for preparing hazardous
drugs (HDs) must maintain a minimum of how many air changes per hour (\text{ACPH})? (A) 5
\text{ACPH} (B) 12 \text{ACPH} (C) 20 \text{ACPH} (D) 30 \text{ACPH}
If a Compounding Aseptic Isolator (\text{CAI}) used for non-hazardous compounding fails its
ISO certification, how is the Beyond-Use Date (\text{BUD}) of CSPs prepared in it immediately
affected, typically falling into the limits of a Category 1 CSP? (A) BUD remains unchanged if no
microbial contamination is detected. (B) BUD is extended to the maximum stability date. (C)
BUD is limited to 12 hours at room temperature or 24 hours refrigerated. (D) All CSPs prepared
must be immediately discarded.
What is the appropriate action level for viable air sampling inside an ISO Class 5 Primary
