NEUR 1203B/ NEUR1203 Mock Final Exam | Complete Questions and Answers | 100% all Correct, updated Fall 2025/26.

NEUR 1203B Mock Final Exam Multiple Choice 1. At what stage of PD does the disease progress to the Substantia Nigra? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 2. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for PD? a. L-DOPA b. Deep Brain Stimulation c. COMT inhibitors d. Glutamate Agonists 3. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of PD? a. Tremors b. Rigidity c. Akinesia/Bradykinesia d. Postural Instability 4. True or false: depression, anxiety, and sleep disturbances are all non-motor symptoms of PD. a. True b. False 5. In the Basal Ganglia, individuals with Parkinson’s disease have a lack of dopaminergic cells, which leads to decreased _______ of the indirect pathway and decreased ______ of the direct pathway. a. Activation; activation b. Activation; inhibition c. Inhibition; inhibition d. Inhibition; activation 6. True or false: in the Basal Ganglia, the direct pathway favours movement. a. True b. False 7. PD mainly affects which age group of individuals a. Adults age 40-50 b. Adults age 60+ c. Adults age 25-40 d. Adults age 75+ 8. Which of the following is NOT one of the four main nuclei of the Basal Ganglia? a. Globus Pallidus b. Substantia Nigra c. Prefrontal Cortex d. Subthalamic Nucleus 9. The indirect basal ganglia pathway… a. Favours movementb. Inhibits movement c. Modulates learning d. Controls fine motor skills 10. Lewey bodies in PD are caused by which protein? a. Alpha-synuclein protein b. Tau Proteins c. COMT Proteins d. D2 MSN Proteins 11. True or False: Parkinson’s Disease if considered idiopathic a. True b. False 12. The current main hypothesis regarding parkinson’s lewey bodies is that it begins in the _______ and then travels up the _______ to the ________. a. Brainstem and olfactory bulbs; lateral ventricles; basal ganglia b. Gut; vagus nerve; brainstem and olfactory bulbs c. Basal Ganglia; lateral ventricles; Brainstem and olfactory bulbs d. Brainstem and olfactory bulbs; vagus nerve; gut 13. What is the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s Disease? a) Autosomal recessive b) X-linked dominant c) Autosomal dominant d) Mitochondrial inheritance 14. Which brain region is primarily affected in the early stages of Huntington’s Disease? a) Hippocampus b) Dorsal striatum c) Cerebellum d) Thalamus 15. What is the molecular cause of Huntington’s Disease? a) Exon deletion in the HTT gene b) Frameshift mutation in the HTT gene c) Missense mutation in the HTT gene d) Expansion of CAG trinucleotide repeats in the HTT gene 16. Huntington’s disease is associated with a loss of which type of neurons? a) Dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra b) Indirect MSNs in the striatum c) Direct MSNs in the striatum d) Both b and c 17. Which of the following mechanisms is MOST directly responsible for cell death in Huntington’s Disease?a) Oxidative stress in mitochondria b) Aggregation of tau proteins c) Caspase-mediated intrinsic apoptosis d) Loss of synaptic vesicle recycling 18. What type of movement disorder is most commonly seen in Huntington’s Disease? a) Chorea b) Tremor c) Rigidity d) Bradykinesia 19. Which of the following is a benign tumor of the meninges? a) Glioma b) Medulloblastoma c) Meningioma d) Pineoblastoma 20. A patient presents with blurry vision and peripheral vision loss. Which brain region likely contains the tumor? a) Frontal lobe b) Occipital lobe c) Parietal lobe d) Temporal lobe 21. What is a defining feature of grade 4 brain tumors? a) No risk of recurrence after treatment b) Benign behavior with localized symptoms c) Low growth rate and well-differentiated cells d) High growth rate and highly abnormal cells 22. Which process allows tumors to recruit blood supply and potentially spread? a) Metastasis b) Oncogenesis c) Angiogenesis d) Apoptosis 23. What is the definition of a brain tumor? a) Abnormal growth of cells in or near the brain b) A cyst that develops on brain tissue c) A mass of fluid-filled glial cells d) A lesion formed by trauma24. Which of the following symptoms would most likely occur with a tumor in the temporal lobe? a) Vision loss b) Memory issues and hearing problems c) Balance issues d) Sensory numbness 25. True or False: Alzheimer's Disease can only be diagnosed postmortem. a) True b) False 26. Which of the following is NOT a hallmark pathology of Alzheimer’s Disease? a) Amyloid plaques b) Neurofibrillary tangles c) Demyelination d) Loss of cholinergic neurons 27. What gene is most commonly associated with increased risk of late-onset Alzheimer's Disease? a) APP b) PSEN1 c) APOE e4 d) Tau 28. True or False: Generalized seizures occur in only one hemisphere of the brain. a) True b) False 29. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with excitation in the brain? a) GABA b) Acetylcholine c) Glutamate d) Dopamine 30. Which of the following is a symptom of early-stage Alzheimer's Disease? a) Complete loss of motor function b) Disorientation c) Short-term memory loss d) Language difficulty 31. Which of these seizures involves sudden, brief jerking movements? a) Atonic b) Myoclonic c) Absence d) Tonic-clonic 32. True or False: Tau proteins are involved in the formation of neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s Disease. a) Trueb) False 33. What treatment works by increasing acetylcholine levels in Alzheimer's patients? a) NMDA inhibitors b) Cholinesterase inhibitors c) Glutamate agonists d) Beta-blockers 34. Which brain region is often first affected in Alzheimer’s Disease? a) Cerebellum b) Entorhinal cortex c) Occipital lobe d) Pons 35. True or False: In epilepsy, the balance between excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmission is often disrupted. a) True b) False 36. What kind of seizure affects a small region of one cerebral hemisphere but may spread? a) Absence seizure b) Generalized seizure c) Focal seizure d) Reflex seizure 37. Nociception can encode pain. In the nociceptive pathway , sensory afferents travel to the _______ spinal cord a) Ventral b) Lateral c) Dorsal d) Motor 38. Which of the following about nociceptors is false? a) Nociceptors are the most basic type of sensory receptor cell b) Nociceptors transduce and encode noxious stimuli c) Their Dorsal root ganglion neurons have small diameter cell bodies d) They have a lower threshold for pain 39. A fibers are _____ which makes them code for ____ pain whereas C fibers are _____ which makes them code for ____ pain. a) Myelinated, sensory, unmyelinated, motor b) Myelinated, first, unmyelinated, second c) Unmyelinated, first, myelinated, second d) Myelinated, second, unmyelinated, second 40. Injuries to one portion of the spinal cord will cause different symptoms on different body parts. This means that if you damage one half of the spinal cord:a)Lose mechanosensation on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body b)Lose pain/temperature perception on the other (contralateral) side of body c)lose both mechanosensation and pain temperature on the same(ipsilateral) side of the body d)both a and b 41. The gate control theory of pain states that: Activation of mechanoreceptors (A fibers) leads to _________ of nociceptive output by activating _________ interneurons a)activation, excitatory b)activation, inhibitory c)inactivation, inhibitory d)inactivation, excitatory 42. True or false? Opioids work by binding to opioid receptors and opening calcium channels and closing potassium channels to decrease pain: a)True b)False 43. ALS is caused by: a. The degeneration of the spinal cord b. The degeneration of the motor cortex c. The degeneration of upper motor neurons d. The degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons 44. What is the correct order of information transfer to generate a motor response? e. LMN → muscle → interneuron within the spinal cord → UMN f. UMN → interneuron → muscle → LMN g. UMN → interneuron → LMN → muscle h. Interneuron → UMN → LMN → muscle 45. Upper motor neurons project to pyramidal cells in the ____ cortex and project to interneurons in the spinal cord: a)motor b)sensory c)upper d)both a and b 46. A motor unit consists of : a) LMN, UMN and all the muscle fibers it innervates b) UMN, axon and all the muscles fibers it innervates c) LMN, axon and all the muscle fibers it innervates d) None of the above 47. True or false? Electromyography can be used to help diagnose ALS: a) True b) FalseShort Answer 1. Explain how the loss of D2 medium spiny neurons in the striatum leads to the motor symptoms seen in Huntington’s disease. 2. Explain how L-DOPA and COMT inhibitors help relieve symptoms of individuals with Parkinson's Disease. 3. Complete the parts of the following Basal Ganglia Loop: a. What pathway is this? 3. 2. 4.4. Describe the role of tau protein in the development of Alzheimer’s Disease. 5. Explain the basic mechanism of seizure development in epilepsy with regard to excitation/inhibition balance. 6. Compare and contrast the Anterior Spinothalamic Tract (Anterior STT) with the Lateral spinothalamic pain pathway and how they process pain. Ensure to include the different structures and what aspect of pain each pathway is involved in.7. Explain some of the pathologies seen in ALS. Definitions Medium Spiny Neurons (MSNs): Stereotactic Radiosurgery: Secondary Brain Tumor: Dopamine: Basal Ganglia: Apoptosis: Neurofibrillary Tangles: . Focal Seizure: Cholinergic System:Nociception: Allodynia: Central sensitization: Lower motor neurons: Riluzole: