Portage Learning: BIOD 210 exam 1 -7 bank, Complete Questions and Answers (2025).

Exam 1 1. In a few sentences, summarize Darwin's theory of natural selection. Natural selection implies that only organisms that can adapt to withstand harsh environment conditions will survive. “Only the strong survive” 2. Match each description to the correct term using these words: Zebrafish, worms, Fruit fly, Mice o Can be "humanized" - o Extremely inexpensive and extremely short life span – o Transparent egg and embryo - o Simple nervous system that is easy to research 3. Name 2 types of animal models that are used for genetic research. Describe one trait that each model possesses that makes it a useful genetic tool. 4. Are preformation and epigenesis the same thing? Explain why or why not. 5. How does preformation differ from epigenesis? 6. Match each description to the correct term using these words: Alleles, gene, genotype, diploid number, chromosomes, phenotype. o number of chromosomes – o an observation feature - o alternative form of gene - o basic unit of heredity - o exists in pairs within the nucleus o the set of alleles that 7. What type of plants did Gregor Mendel use in his famous experiments? 8. Which of the following does NOT describe the chromosomal theory of inheritance? (select all that apply) o Chromosomes are contained within genes that encode for all genetic traits o Chromosomes inherited from a father will be dominant over those from the mother o The proteins within chromosomes are the chief drivers of genetic inheritance o Genes, contributed from each parent, are carried on chromosomes. 9. The chromosomal theory of inheritance states that: 10. are the basic building blocks of DNA. 11. True or False: Nucleotides are the basic building blocks that make up DNA. 12. Modern agriculture has benefited from the use of biotechnology through the use of transgenic crops. What does this mean? 13. Explain how the use of biotechnology has contributed to modern agriculture. 14. True or False: The theory of spontaneous generation posits that living things can spontaneously generate from nonliving things. 15. Natural selection posits that organisms that have the most advantageous characteristics will survive their environment. Do humans have the same selective pressures for natural selection that their animal counterparts do? Are humans still evolving? 16. Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann famously introduced: 17. Cell theory was introduced by: 18. Charles Darwin's publication on evolution is called: 19. Propose examples of certain traits that could benefit an animal that lives in a forested environment. 20. Propose examples of certain traits that could benefit an animal that lives in a mountainous environment. 21. The hypothesized that heredity and development depend on the passing of genetic information via that are contained within chromosomes. 22. The number of total chromosomes in a normal human chromosome set is . Chromosomes exist in matched numbers of . 23. Humans have a number of 46, with a number of 23. 24. genes are the "normal" genes, such as the red eye color in the fruit fly. A mutation of a gene is referred to as an . 25. What are the four nucleotides that make up DNA? What are the pair combinations that they form? Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine How many nucleotides make up DNA? In which combinations do they pair? 26. Corn and soybeans are 90% transgenic crops. What does this mean? 27. The FDA-approved ATryn used to treat blood clots, was derived from genetically engineered 28. A gene can be inserted into carrier DNA using enzymes that cut the DNA called . This carrier DNA is referred to as a . 29. Match the model with the system: mouse, worm, zebrafish, fruit fly. o can be made into “humanized” model o good model of the nervous system o have a tiny genome and large offspring o have transparent eggs and larvae 30. Which two scientists won the Nobel Prize for their model of the double-stranded DNA helix? 31. For what did James Watson and Francis Crick win the Nobel Prize? 32. True or False: DNA is responsible for carrying the genetic information within organisms. 33. True or False: Proteins are responsible for carrying the genetic information within organisms. Exam 2 1. Which of the following statements is correct? 2. True or False: A dominant gene will always cause the expression of a dominant phenotype in any genetic cross. 3. People with sickle-cell disease can become very sick under what conditions? 4. A homozygous long-haired cat is bred to a homozygous short-haired cat. Assuming that the gene for long hair is completely dominant, what are the chances of the F1 offspring being long-haired? 5. A dog breeder is looking to cross a long-haired female dog with a short-haired male dog. The gene for hair length has incomplete dominance. By crossing the F1 offspring, what percentage of the F2 generation are predicted to be short-haired? 6. Consider 3 genes that assort independently in squirrels. A gene for brown color is dominant (D), a gene for a bushy tail is dominant (B), and a gene for reflux after eating acorns is recessive (a). Use the product law to predict the likelihood of producing a squirrel (from parents that are heterozygous for each trait individually) that is brown, bushy-tailed, and has reflux from all those acorns. 7. Two individuals with widow's peaks have a child with a straight hairline. A. Is the gene for a widow's peak likely dominant or recessive? Likely dominant B. Could you predict the genotype of the parents, assuming there is no codominance? No, if the gene is dominant one of them could be homozygous or both heterozygous. C. If the child with the straight hairline someday marries a person with a widow's peak, can you predict for certain whether their offspring will have a widow's peak? 8. Alternate forms of a gene are termed: 9. A karyotype is a snapshot of the within the cell. cells are isolated and stained so that a trained geneticist can organize them into chromosomes to detect genetic abnormalities. 10. True or False: A normal chromosome set always has paired X and Y chromosomes. 11. The phenotype for sickle-cell anemia is distortion of the in afflicted people. This results in depletion of in the blood and poses a significant risk to the patients at high . Sickle-cell anemia is caused by mutation(s) in the protein sequence. 12. The phenotype for is distortion of the red blood cells in afflicted people. This results in depletion of in the blood and poses a significant risk to the patients at altitude. is caused by one in the protein sequence. 13. Why did Mendel choose the pea plant as his genetics model? 14. In a cross, the original generation is known as the generation and the first generation of their offspring is known as the generation. 15. Which of Mendel's hypotheses needs a correction? Make the correction. o Genetic characters are controlled by unit factors existing in pairs in individual organisms. o When two unlike unit factors responsible for a single characteristic are present in a single individual, one unit factor is said to be dominant to the other, which is said to be recessive. o During the formation of gametes, the paired unit factors separate, or segregate, randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood. o During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors assort in pairs. During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently of each other. 16. Which of Mendel's hypotheses needs a correction? Make the correction. A. Genetic characters are controlled by unit factors existing individually in individual organisms. A. Genetic characters are controlled by unit factors existing IN PAIRS in individual organisms. B. When two unlike unit factors responsible for a single characteristic are present in a single individual, one unit factor is said to be dominant to the other, which is said to be recessive. C. During the formation of gametes, the paired unit factors separate, or segregate, randomly so that each gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood. D. During gamete formation, segregating pairs of unit factors assort independently of each other. 17. True or False: A change in genotype does not always affect a change in phenotype. 18. True or False: A change in genotype will always affect a change in phenotype. 19. Which genetic disease is characterized by a lack of activity from Hexosaminidase A? 20. A mutation in which gene is responsible for a large number of breast cancers? 21. The minimum amount of gene product needed to meet a normal phenotypic expression in an individual is known as: 22. The presence of a normal phenotype expression even in the presence of one abnormally functioning gene is an example of: 23. True or False: In codominance, two alleles are fully expressed regardless of the sex of the organism. 24. The O phenotype in ABO genotyping possesses how many antigens on the surface of red blood cells? 25. In the ABO genotype, the phenotype that exhibits no antigens on the surface of the red blood cells is which type? 26. A mutation of how many nucleotides in beta-globulin leads to sickle-cell disease. 27. When a trait is preferentially expressed over another trait, that trait is said to be . 28. Match the terms on the left with their best definition on the right: Gamete, genotype, heterozygous, homozygous, wild-type, chromosome, codominance, incomplete dominance. o The physical manifestation of any trait o Containing 2 different alleles for a specific gene o The allele that is predominantly expressed o Both genes can produce 2 independent gene products - o The two alleles carried for a given trait (i.e. DD, dd, Dd) o The structure on which genes are organized 29. Give a brief description of a karyotype and explain why it has such utility in diagnosing genetic disorders. What type of cells are used for deriving the chromosomes? 30. Match the term with the correct description: Monohybrid cross, dihybrid cross, reciprocal cross, test cross, gene interaction. o Cross that looks at an individual trait o Cross that looks at 2 characteristics simultaneously o Cross of unknown genotype/dominant phenotype with known recessive genotype o A single phenotype being affected by more than one gene – gene o Cross that switches male and female for the trait in question. – 31. In a cross, the original generation is known as the generation, and the first generation of their offspring is known as the generation. 32. Create a Punnett square to determine the characteristics of the F1 generation of the following cross: Both parents are heterozygous for the dominant gene for a long big toe (Tt). If they have four offspring, how many would you expect to have a long big toe? T t T TT Tt T Tt tt 3 out of 4 are expected to have a long big toe. Exam 3 1. True or False: Chromosomes are uncondensed and diffuse for only a short time during the cell cycle. 2. True or False: Chromosomes are in an uncondensed, diffuse form through most of the cell cycle. 3. True or False: Chromosomes are in a condensed form through most of the cell cycle. 4. Match the following terms to the correct description: Nuclear membrane, cytosol, plasma membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleus. o Protects the cell from the outside environment o Dissolves during mitosis o Contains all the DNA within the cell o Studded with ribosomes on a large surface area reticulum o Jelly-like substance within cells 5. During prophase, which membrane breaks down? The nuclear membrane 6. At which cell cycle phase does the nuclear membrane break down? 7. The genetic flow of material between organisms is NOT dependent on which of these criteria? a) independent assortment of the genes b) Replication of material c) Storage of information d) Variation of DNA through mutation 8. The genetic flow of material between organisms is NOT dependent on which of the following criteria: a) Replication of material b) Storage of information c) Variation of DNA through mutation d) All of these criteria are needed for the flow of genetic material. 9. Which of the following is correct? a) sister chromatids are held together by cohesin b) Centrioles are responsible for the formation of spindle fibers. c) In metaphase, centromeres line up on an equatorial plate in the center of the cell d) All are correct 10. The longest of the stages during mitosis is: 11. DNA is condensed within the nucleus (cellular compartment) by coiling around (1) proteins. Modification of these (2) charged proteins alters them to become either neutral or negatively charged. Thus, the interaction with (3) charged DNA is interrupted, and the interactions loosen. 12. DNA is condensed within the (1) (cellular compartment) by coiling around (2) proteins. Modification of these positively charged proteins alters them to become either neutral or negatively charged. Thus, the interaction with (3) charged DNA is interrupted, and the interactions loosen. 13. Which of the following is true about anaphase? 14. Interphase marks the period of the cell cycle just before active cell division. Starting with interphase, place the phases of the cell cycle in order 1-5: Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase, S-phase, Anaphase 15. Which of the following is true about anaphase? a) It marks the longest phase of the cell cycle b) Chromatids undergo disjunction to travel to opposite poles 16. A chiasma is a point during meiosis at which the non- homologous sister chromatids: 17. Which of the following statements is correct? a) The Y chromosome is the driving determinant for sex of an offspring. b) The X chromosome is much larger than the Y chromosome. c) Incorrect segregation of X and Y chromosomes (for instance, a female d) All of the statements are correct 18. Genes that are part of the same chromosome are said to be . 19. True or False: Linked genes do not necessarily share a chromosome. 20. True or False: Linked genes are part of the same chromosome. 21. Consider genes A, B, and C, which are located on a chromosome in that order. If genes A and B cross over 40% of the time, and genes B and C cross over 30% of the time, what is the probability of a double crossover between A B and C? 22. Consider genes A, B, and C, which are located on a chromosome in that order. If genes A and B cross over 30% of the time, and genes B and C cross over 30% of the time, what is the probability of a double crossover between A B and C? 23. The _(1)_ chromosome and specifically the (2) gene on that chromosome, appear to determine the sex of a human. 24. Klinefelter syndrome is a disorder of the (1) sex chromosome and displays a genotype of (2) . 25. The sex disorder that exhibits an XXY genotype is known as (1) . This disorder is caused by an additional (2) chromosome. 26. Indicate whether each of the following statements is True or a) G0 is an actively dividing cell cycle phase. b) Cells enter G0 when the environmental conditions are not ideal for survival. c) Cells in G0 do not undergo active replication. - true d) When conditions become normal, cells may go back into the cell cycle. 27. Indicate whether each of the following statements is True or False. a) G0 is a resting phase. b) Cell enter G0 when the environmental conditions are not ideal for survival. c) Cell in G0 undergo active replication. d) When conditions become normal, cells always go back into the cell cycle. 28. A fertilized egg that is the result of fusion of two gametes is called a . 29. Match the following terms to the correct description: Spindle fibers, kinetochore, shugoshin, histones, cohesin, cyclins, centrioles, kinases, metaphase plate. o Flank the centromere; aid movement to the poles in anaphase – o Made of tubulin, provide a network for centromere movement – o Cytoplasmic bodies occurring in pairs, found near the nucleus - o Bind and activate kinases during the cell cycle o Phosphorylate proteins involved in cellular signaling o Protein complex formed in S phase, holds chromatids together o Hold DNA tightly wrapped in a condensed form o Protects the centromere from cohesin degradation o Area where centromeres meet in the midline of the cell 30. The primary male gamete is the (1) and the primary (2) gamete is the oocyte. 31. True or False: A fertilized egg that is the result of fusion of two gametes is called an oocyte. 32. True or False: The primary male gamete is the sperm, and the primary female gamete is the oocyte. 33. Which of the following criteria must be met in order to successfully map genes? 34. True or False: At fertilization, the phenotype of a male or female is immediately evident. 35. True or False: Very early in embryonic development, the embryo is essentially sexually indifferent, meaning it has neither a male or female phenotype. 36. When cells become quiescent during G0, they are: 37. During which phase of the cell cycle do cells become quiescent? 38. The X and Y sex chromosomes are known as chromosomes. 39. Why is modification of histone proteins critically important to DNA transcription? 40. True or false: The eggs of a female undergo both meiosis I and meiosis II before she is even born. 41. True or False: The eggs of a female undergo meiosis 1 before she is even born, but they undergo meiosis 2 after fertilization occurs. 42. True or False: The eggs of a female undergo both meiosis I and meiosis II at puberty. Exam 4 1. Explain how have multidrug-resistant pathogens in agriculture been propagated. 2. Explain how have multidrug-resistant pathogens in health clinics been propagated. 3. When the bacteria are cultured but separated by a filter so that they cannot directly touch, one of the bacterial strains can grow well on minimal medium. What type of genetic transmission occurred in this experiment? Explain how you know. 4. Two auxotrophic bacterial strains are propagated in the laboratory, one deficient for leucine and the other deficient for biotin. When cultured alone, they cannot grow on minimal medium, and when combined in the same culture media, they still cannot grow in the minimal media. Can you tell if genetic transmission occurred in this experiment in the case of genes that control synthesis of biotin or leucine? . 5. Does spontaneous mutation positively or negatively affect evolution? Briefly explain your answer. 6. True or False: A bacterium that can grow well on a minimal medium is an example of an auxotroph. 7. True or False: A bacterium that can grow well on a minimal medium is an example of a prototroph. 8. Fill in the blank: A bacterium that can grow well on minimal medium is an example of a . 9. Match the following terms with the correct description: Enzyme, Prophage, Gratuitous Inducer, Structural Gene, Operon. a) Acts as a catalyst for a biochemical reaction b) Clusters of genes and the region that activates them c) Activates genes but are not substrates for enzymes d) Gene not involved in the biochemical reaction e) Virus DNA integrated into a bacterial chromosome 10. The activity of a gene that happens most of the time and results in only a few copies of the gene being constantly produced before it is called upon for activity is called the . Basal level 11. IPTG is a inducer of the lac operon. 12. A gene that is expressed all of the time regardless of conditions is called: a) Permanent b) Constitutive c) Inducible d) Minimal 13. Fill in the Blank: IPTG is a gratuitous inducer of the operon. 14. True or False: A temperate bacteriophage is capable of either lysis or acting as a prophage within a bacterial cell. 15. Match the structural gene of the lac operon with its protein product and its function. o Gene: lacZ, lacY, lacA o Protein: Permease, Transacetylase, B-galactosidase o Function: May help to remove built-up toxins, Converts lactose into glucose and galactose, Facilitates lactose entry into the bacterial cell. 16. A phage will always lyse its bacterial host, a phage that is integrated into the bacterial is called a prophage, and a phage that is capable of either lysis or integration is known as a phage. a) lytic; membrane; temperate b) virulent; chromosome; temperate c) virulent; membrane; stable d) lytic; chromosome; stable 17. A virulent phage will always its bacterial host, a phage that is integrated into the bacterial is called a prophage, and a phage that is capable of either lysis or integration is known as a phage. 18. Label the phases of bacterial growth in the provided image. 19. Name 2 reasons that bacteria are an excellent tool for genetics research. Large amounts can be grown quickly, inexpensive, reproducible in any lab. 20. Which TWO of the following are reasons that bacteria are excellent for use in genetic research? a) Large amounts of bacteria can be grown in a short time. b) Their genome is very similar to the human genome. C) They can be grown in almost any research environment with relatively low risk. d) They don’t require selection to isolate one species or strain. 21. True or False: Genetic information can be transferred between bacteria on a double-stranded RNA molecule called a plasmid. 22. True or False: Genetic information can be transferred between bacteria on a double-stranded DNA molecule called a plasmid. 23. Plasmids and DNA are contained within the of bacterial cells. 24. In which cellular compartment are bacterial DNA and plasmids contained? 25. Match the following terms to the correct description: Transduction, F+ cell, F- cell, F- factor, R- determinants. a) Capable of donating info via a sex pilus b) Transfer of genetic material via phages c) Circular, double stranded DNA, AKA plasmid d) Capable of receiving genetic info for integration e) Gene that confers specific antibiotic resistance 26. True or False: Bacterial cells contain DNA and plasmids within the cytoplasm. 27. True or false: Bacteria can be grown only in liquid culture on minimal medium. 28. True or false: Bacteria can be grown in minimal medium on either plates or in liquid culture. 29. In order to undergo transformation, bacteria must be physiologically , which sometimes is done through the use of chemicals and heat or electroporation. The DNA is then taken up through in the membrane, and subsequently one strand is digested by . The single remaining strand forms a heteroduplex with the host chromosome, and eventually is integrated to become part of the chromosome. 30. In order to undergo , bacteria must be physiologically competent, which sometimes is done through the use of chemicals and heat or electroporation. The DNA is then taken up through pores in the membrane, and subsequently one strand is digested by . The single remaining strand forms a with the host chromosome, and eventually is integrated to become part of the chromosome. 31. The in a phage is packaged in the head, which is shaped like a capsule. The sheath of the phage pushes the DNA through the host cell much like a syringe. 32. The DNA in a phage is packaged in the , which is shaped like a capsule. The of the phage pushes the DNA through the host cell membrane much like a syringe. 33. True or False: Phages must either be virulent or prophages. 34. True or False: Some phages are capable of acting as either a lytic phage or a prophage. 35. True or False: Virulent phages will lyse their host to release their progeny. 36. phages are capable of being either virulent or prophages. 37. When genes are very closely mapped, they can be transduced together via phage in a process called . a) Colinkage b) Cotransduction c) Phage-linking d) Cotransformation 38. An enzyme that can be turned off by appropriate signals or conditions is called: a) Repressible b) Stationary c) Constitutive d) Inducible 39. True or false: Enzymes can never be turned off. 40. An enzyme that is turned on all the time is called a . 41. Fill in the blank: A virulent phage must its host to release progeny. 42. In E. coli, RyhB is a negative regulator of gene activity. RyhB is an example of a(n) . 43. True or False: The RyhB negative regulator is an example of an rRNA. 44. True or False: The RyhB negative regulator is an example of an sRNA. Exam 5 1. Consider the following DNA sequence: 3'-TAC TGG GTT CCC-5' a. Write out the complementary RNA sequence, including indicating the 5' and 3'. b. The poly-U's of strand termination are found on which end of the RNA (5' or 3')? c. Identify the start codon in the sequence you wrote in part a. of this question. AUG 2. Consider the following DNA sequence: 3'-AAC TAC TGT GTA a. Write out the complementary RNA sequence, including the 5' and 3' b. Translation starts on which end of the RNA (5' or 3')? c. Identify the start codon in the complementary sequence you wrote in part a. of this question 3. True or False: Transcription of DNA into mRNA does not require an RNA primer. 4. True or False: transcription of mRNA into DNA requires an RNA primer. 5. Why must the DNA within eukaryotes be complexed with histone proteins, but not in bacteria? What happens to these complexes during DNA replication? 6. Match the following terms to the correct description: Ribosomes, Codon, reverse transcription, shelterin complex, exon. o Serves as a site for protein translation on the ER surface o Protects chromosome ends from degradation – o Three nucleotides that form a code for an amino acid - o Synthesis of DNA from a strand of RNA – 7. mRNA sequences that are coding for a sequences for proteins - Define the wobble hypothesis and why it is important for the degeneracy in coding. 8. Fill-in-the-Blank: The element is a -acting element that is located upstream from the site of transcription initiation. 9. Fill in the Blank: The Pribnow element is a (1) -acting element that is located (2) from the site of transcription initiation. 10. True or False: A silencer or enhancer is almost always located immediately upstream of the gene that it is affecting. 11. True or False: A silencer element is always located close to the gene that it affects, but an enhancer element can be far away. 12. What is the enzyme that contributes to the growth of a nucleotide chain and also helps in the proofreading process? 13. True or False: Once a polymerase is moving forward along a nucleotide chain, the ability to stall and reverse direction if things go wrong is called proofreading. 14. Fill-in-the-Blank: In the process of RNA splicing, are removed from the pre-mRNA and are rejoined to make a mature mRNA. 15. Fill-in-the-Blank: In the process of RNA , exons are joined together to make mature mRNA and are removed from the pre- mRNA. 16. Fill in the Blank: In the process of RNA , introns are removed from the pre-mRNA and are rejoined to make a mature mRNA. 17. How does alternative splicing enhance the diversity of the genetic code? 18. What is the amino acid sequence of the two following codon sequences? 19. What is the translated amino acid sequence of the two following codon sequences? 19. Match the terms to the correct description: Elongation factor-G, monosome, Elongation factor-tu, Kozak sequence, Shine-Dalgarno. o The complex of ribosome subunit + ribosomal proteins o shifts the ribosomes to move the peptide chain o Escorts a tRNA to the aminoacyl site on ribosomes o Bacterial mRNA sequence just upstream from Start codon – shine- o Eukaryote mRNA sequence of G or A upstream from initiation – 20. True or False. The Shine-Dalgarno or Kozak sequence acts as a termination sequence for translation. 21. True or False. The Shine-Dalgarno or Kozak sequence is the initiation sequence for translation. 22. Why is the mRNA of eukaryotes protected much more so than that of bacteria? 23. The nucleotide sequences on the ends of chromosomes that protect the genome from nucleolytic degradation, unnecessary recombination, repair, and interchromosomal fusion are called . 24. True or False: The nucleotide sequences on the ends of chromosomes that protect the genome from nucleolytic degradation, unnecessary recombination, repair, and interchromosomal fusion are called telomeres. 25. Why do scientists believe that telomere shortening has a strong correlation with aging? 26. True or False: The large subunit of the ribosome is responsible for recognition of the codon sequences as the mRNA comes through the ribosome. It contains both the aminoacyl and the peptidyl sites. 27. True or False: The small subunit of the ribosome is responsible for recognition of the codon sequences as the mRNA comes through the ribosome. It contains both the aminoacyl and the peptidyl sites. 28. True or False: The strand of DNA that is used for making mRNA is known as the template strand. 29. True or False: Transcription occurs on the template strand. 30. True or False: Transcription occurs on the coding strand. 31. The charging of a tRNA so that it can properly interact with an amino acid to bring it to the growing peptidyl chain is called: a) Peptidase b) Aminase c) Aminoacylation d) RNA polymerase 32. True or False: The charging of a tRNA so that is can properly interact with an amino acid to bring it to the growing peptidyl chain is called aminoacylation. 33. The fact that several codons can encode for a single amino acid in the genetic code means that we call the code . 34. DNA and RNA differ in their structure in 2 ways, what are they? DNA – double stranded, deoxyribose, and thymine. 35. True or False: A polymerase can actually help in the excision of a mis-paired base for removal. 36. True or False: When the polymerase enzyme encounters a wrong base pair, it pauses, reverses direction, and excises the base. 37. True or False: The degeneracy of the genetic code means that several codons can encode for a single amino acid. 38. Fill in the blank: The process of amino-acid chain elongation continues until an mRNA sequence encodes a codon. 39. Fill in the Blank: Amino acids are added in the process until an mRNA sequence encodes for the stop codon. 40. True or False: A stop codon does not always cause elongation to stop. Exam 6 1. An alteration to the chromosome that results in a change to the total number of chromosomes, deletions or additions to the chromosome, or even complete rearrangement of chromosomal segments is called a chromosomal . 2. True or False: A chromosomal ablation is an alteration to the chromosome that results in a change to the total number of chromosomes, deletions or additions to the chromosome, or even complete rearrangement of chromosomal segments. 3. True or false: A chromosomal aberration is an alteration to the chromosome that results in a change to the total number of chromosomes, deletions or additions to the chromosome, or even complete rearrangement of chromosomal segments. 4. True or False: Sex chromosomes can occur in pairs but also exist with no phenotypic sequence. 5. True or False: Sex chromosomes are the only exception to the rule that chromosomes occur in pairs. 6. True or False: Sex chromosomes occur in identical pairs. 7. True or False: Trisomy and monosomy in autosomal chromosomes are generally not tolerated in animals or plants. 8. True or False: Trisomy and monosomy in autosomal chromosomes are generally tolerated better in plants than in animals. 9. What is the only trisomy disorder in which individuals routinely live longer than one year? 10. The incidence of this disorder seems to increase with an increased age in which parent? 11. Is Down syndrome considered monosomy or trisomy? Does its incidence increase or decrease with maternal age? 12. True or False: Individuals that are afflicted with Down syndrome typically exhibit most, if not all, of the stereotypical characteristics of the disorder. 13. True or False: Individuals that are afflicted with Down syndrome typically exhibit only a subset of the stereotypical characteristics of the disorder. 14. True or False: The region of the chromosome 20 that is thought to be responsible for the phenotype for Down syndrome is the DSCR. 15. The region of the chromosome 21 that is thought to be typically responsible for the phenotype of Down syndrome is the . 16. Why do researchers think that individuals with Down Syndrome are protected from cancers that cause solid tumors? 17. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT) is a test that gives an estimated risk of the fetus having . screening; aneuploidy 18. The most recent and non-invasive genetic test to determine whether a mother is carrying a baby at risk for one of the common trisomies is called . This process allows the mother to donate a blood sample to detect . 19. The most recent and non-invasive genetic test to determine whether a mother is carrying a baby at risk for Down syndrome (or any genetic disorder) is called . This process allows the mother to donate a sample from the blood to establish a for the risk of genetic disorders. 20. In a few sentences, what are the current thoughts on why the incidence of Down syndrome increases drastically after age 40 in a mother? 21. The DSCR region thought to be typically responsible for the Down syndrome phenotype is located on chromosome . 22. Noninvasive prenatal genetic screening allows a mother to donate a sample of . This blood is used to establish a to determine the risks of genetic disorders. 23. Match the following terms to their correct description: Deletion, Insertion, Aberration, Translocation, Duplication. o Generic chromosome term for loss, addition, rearrangements - o Addition of a chromosomal segment - o Loss of a chromosomal segment - o Repeat of a chromosomal segment - o Movement of a chromosomal segment to a new location - 24. Fill in the Blank: Karyotyping of spontaneously aborted fetuses led to the discovery that many do not survive to full term. 25. True or False: Karyotyping of spontaneously aborted fetuses showed definitively that many monosomies do not survive full term. 26. True or False: Patau syndrome and Edwards syndrome are examples of trisomy disorders that survive to full-term, but not long after. 27. Other than Down Syndrome, one example of a trisomy disorder that survives to full term is . 28. Do any known human autosomal monosomy disorders survive to full-term? 29. Why are monosomic fetuses rarely recovered? They likely don’t live long enough for scientists to be able to 30. An intercalary deletion occurs the chromosome, whereas a terminal deletion occurs at the of the chromosome. 31. A deletion that occurs within a chromosome is called an deletion, whereas one that occurs at the end of a chromosome is a deletion. 32. A small terminal deletion in chromosome leads to , characterized by gross gastrointestinal and heart abnormalities, and abnormal development of the glottis and larynx that result in a cat-like cry. 33. The hallmark phenotype of cri-du-chat syndrome, which is a in chromosome 5, is a . 34. Duplications of DNA sequences are widely variable in numbers among individuals of the same organism. This is referred to as: 35. True or False: Duplication of DNA sequences that are widely variable in numbers among individuals of the same organism is referred to as copy number variation (CNV). 36. Which two statements are true: A.) Infectious heredity is a form of extranuclear heredity in which DNA is transmitted through chloroplasts or mitochondria. B.) Mitochondria house their own DNA. C.) Maternal heredity is a form of extranuclear heredity in which DNA is transmitted through chloroplasts or mitochondria. D.) Infectious heredity results from the transmission of genetic information due to an infectious species in the host cell. 37. Which two statements are true? A. Infectious heredity is a form of extranuclear heredity in which DNA is transmitted through chloroplasts or mitochondria B. Mitochondria store extra DNA from the nucleus 38. True or false: The endosymbiotic theory states that eukaryotes were engulfed by bacteria to form a symbiotic relationship. 39. True or false: The endosymbiotic theory states that free living bacteria were engulfed by eukaryotes to form a symbiotic relationship. 40. Name the two ways that mtDNA is different than nuclear DNA. mtDNA is in a circular shape, and they have their own sets of ribosomes that vary in size. 41. Why are mutations in mitochondria generally considered so significant (i.e., why do they contribute to such a huge number of disorders)? 42. True or False: Homoplasmy is the presence of a mix of mutated and normal mitochondria. 43. True or False: Heteroplasmy is the presence of a mix of mutated and normal mitochondria. 44. True or False: The mitochondria in myoclonic epilepsy and ragged red-fiber disease (MERRF) do not proliferate often enough. 45. In mitochondrial replacement therapy, the offspring receives the DNA from three different parents. An egg with mitochondria receives the nucleus from an egg with mitochondria prior to fertilization. 46. In mitochondrial replacement therapy, the offspring receives the DNA from different parents. An egg with normal mitochondria receives the from an egg with mutated mitochondria prior to fertilization. 47. List TWO of the three criteria required for a disorder to be attributed to mitochondrial mutations. 48. What is the process of swapping the nucleus from an egg with mutated mitochondria into one with normal mitochondria called? In this process, the offspring receives the DNA from how many parents? 49. Match the following terms to the correct description: Alkylating agents, Base analogs, intercalating agents. o Drugs that mimic and substitute for normal purines/pyrimidines o Donate alkyl groups to amino or keto groups in nucleotides – o Drugs that wedge themselves between DNA base pairs – 50. True or False: The Ames test is used to measure the efficacy of a compound. 51. The Ames test is used to measure the of a compound. 52. Which of the following is commonly used as a simple, scalable, and repeatable way to measure the mutagenicity of a compound? 53. True of False: Chromosomal aberrations can be lethal but can also result in no change in phenotype. 54. True or False: No chromosomal aberrations are lethal. 55. The loss or gain of one chromosome, but not the entire set, is referred to as . The most common forms of this are (2n-1) and trisomy (2n+1). 56. The loss or gain of one chromosome, but not the set, is referred to as aneuploidy. The most common forms of aneuploidy are (2n-1) and (2n+1). Exam 7 1. T/F: Almost all cancer gene mutations are inherited. 2. True or false: Few cancer mutations are inherited. 3. A tumor that can invade other tissues is called a tumor. If it does not yet have the capacity to invade tissues, that tumor is called a tumor. 4. What are the two properties that are shared by cancer cells? 5. In order to be classified as a cancer, a cell must demonstrate what two properties? 6. The two major therapies currently available to cancer patients are and . 7. The fused "Philadelphia chromosome" in myelogenous leukemia is formed from a mutated gene. 8. The fused chromosomes that form a mutated BCR-ABL gene in chronic myelogenous leukemia is known as the chromosome. 9. Match the following terms to the correct description: Driver, Passenger, Stem cell, tumor, metastasis. o Mutation that imparts a growth advantage on a cancer - o Undifferentiated cell that can still become part of any system – o Mutation that does not contribute to the phenotype of cancer - o Defects in cells that lead to a loss of localization restraints - o Solid mass growth resulting from a loss of proliferation control - 10. Using the development of colon cancer as an example, explain how the process of tumorigenesis can occur in distinct stages through the accumulation of mutations. There are many pathways to developing colon cancer, one of them has 3 stages. 11. Most scientists believe that the biggest driver of a cancer phenotype is . 12. Differentiated cells are cells that provide a specific function in the body. 13. True or false: Differentiated cells have matured to provide a specific function in the body. 14. A tumor that is confined to a localized region of the body is called a tumor. If that tumor breaks off and can invade other tissues, it is called a tumor. 15. Most scientists believe that the biggest driver of a cancer phenotype is the inability of the cell to: 16. T/F: Differentiated cells have matured to provide a specific function in the body. 17. Give three examples of differentiated cells that still divide. 18. Match the following terms to the correct description: G1/S, G2/M, M o Ensures that the cell is an adequate size and DNA is undamaged o Ensures that all DNA replication and repair is completed o Ensures that spindle fibers are fully formed and attached to the kinetochores/centromere system 19. True or False: The two classes of proteins that monitor the progression of the cell cycle are the cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). 20. Cyclins and Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) are the two classes of that monitor the of the cell cycle. 21. Based on the figure: * Why is Cyclin D expressed early and for how much of the cell cycle? Why does Cyclin B arise late in G2 and before M phase? o Why do the levels of these cyclins differ so much during the cell cycle? 22. T/F: The BAX family of proteins are proapoptotic, while the Bcl2 family of proteins are antiapoptotic. 23. The two major families of proteins that control apoptosis are the proapoptotic protein family and the antiapoptotic protein family. 24. The two major families of proteins that control apoptosis are the BAX protein family and the Bcl2 protein family. 25. Match the following terms to the correct description: Caspases, Apoptosis, Tumor suppressors, proto-oncogene. o Encode for transcription factors that stimulate cell cycle or growth o Programmed cell death or deliberate cell suicide o Control regulation of cell cycle checkpoints or initiate cell death o Proteases that digest cellular components during cell death - 26. Which gene product is referred to as the "guardian of the genome"? Is this gene a tumor suppressor or a proto-oncogene? Is the expression of MDM2 by p53 driven by a positive or a negative feedback loop? 27. Which gene product is referred to as the "guardian of the genome"? True or False: The gene product in answer A is continuously produced in low levels. The expression of by p53 drives a negative feedback loop. 28. Explain how cancer cells control the extracellular matrix to drive the process of metastasis. Give an example of a protein we discussed that controls this in breast cancer cells. 29. True or False: One of the most carcinogenic compounds known is actually a naturally occurring compound found on peanut and corn crops. 30. One of the most carcinogenic compounds known, which occurs as a natural mold called Aflatoxin, occurs often on these types of plants: 31. One of the most carcinogenic compounds known, which occurs as natural mold on peanut and corn crops is called . 32. List two ways in which our bodies create their own carcinogens. 33. T/F: Epigenetic therapy does not depend on changes in the DNA sequence. 34. T/F: Epigenetic therapy does depend on changes in the DNA sequence. 35. Therapy that involves modification to gene expression that does not depend on changes in the DNA sequence is known as .