SKYWEST GROUND SYSTEMS
VALIDATION LATEST UPDATE 2025
Approaching the airport, you are 15 miles from the runway at 3000' AGL. As you
configure for the AC for landing, when would you expect the hydraulic ACMP's 1 and 2
to turn on? - ANSWER When the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0.
You are single-engine taxiing on engine 2. With the flaps extended, the parking brake
released, and no other actions taken, which hydraulic pumps would be operating? -
ANSWER ACMP 3A and EDP 2
What are the backup hydraulic pumps for system 1 & 2 called? - ANSWER ACMPs (AC
Motor Pumps)
What is the primary purpose of the PTU? - ANSWER It assists gear extension or
retraction should the right engine/ EDP fail.
The H-PBIT will run automatically when all 3 hydraulic systems are pressurized and: -
ANSWER Hydraulic reservoir temperature is at or above 10C OR H-PBIT timer is at 0
hours regardless of temperature.
On the post flight external inspection, you notice fluid leaking from the nose wheel gear
assembly. Which hydraulic system would you expect to be the source of this leak? -
ANSWER Hydraulic system 2
If Hydraulic pump 3A fails during taxi out to the runway, will hydraulic pump 3B
automatically turn on? - ANSWER No
In system 3, ______ is the primary hydraulic pump. - ANSWER 3A
To check the hydraulic reservoir temperature, pressure and quantity, go to the _______.
- ANSWER Hydraulic synoptic page on the MFD.
In the event of a total hydraulic systems 1 & 2 failure the only way to stop the aircraft is
with reverse thrust? - ANSWER False (Dedicated accumulator stores enough pressure
for 6 emergency brake uses)
The PBE (Protective Breathing Equipment) provides Oxygen by: - ANSWER Pulling the
mask apart with two hands activates each of the oxygen cylinders which provides up to
15 minutes of oxygen.
When cleaning the oxygen mask, it is acceptable to use alcohol wipes on the lenses
and rubber components of the mask. - ANSWER False
,Halon Fire extinguishers can be used for what kind of fires? - ANSWER A, B and C fires
(Ordinary combustibles, Flammable liquids, live electrical equipment)
In the case of partial slide deployment: - ANSWER Stop immediately and notify
maintenance.
In the case of an emergency evacuation the PIC must make every effort to preserve
aircraft documents and mx records. - ANSWER True
Should the cockpit door become inaccessible, how can the flight crew evacuate the AC?
- ANSWER Out of the Direct view (DV) window using the escape ropes.
During an emergency descent the crew oxygen mask provides: - ANSWER -sufficient
oxygen for all crew members
- 98 minutes in Normal at 10,000ft
- 22 minutes in 100%
Water fire extinguishers can be used for Class ___ fires. - ANSWER Class A (Ordinary
combustibles)
How can you identify that a cockpit flashlight has been sufficiently charged? - ANSWER
Flashing red LED.
If the humidity indicator on the PBE is showing blue.... - ANSWER It is functioning
properly.
During the originating flow with the APU running, the pilot presses and holds the Fire
extinguisher test button for more than 10 seconds, the APU will turn off. - ANSWER
True
At FL350 you experience an IDG failure. After completing the appropriate QRC/ QRH,
you elect to start the APU. What altitude must you descend to in order to start the APU?
- ANSWER FL300
The APU will automatically shut down for a fire in- flight? - ANSWER False
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be operated? - ANSWER FL330
While starting the APU, the APU master switch is first rotated to "ON"/ Prior to rotating
the APU master switch to "START" what should be verified? - ANSWER -EICAS must
be energized for at least 30 seconds
-No APU FAIL messages displayed on EICAS
- APU indication on the EICAS changes from OFF to the APU control parameters.
, When powering down the APU, using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, what
indication are you looking for prior to switching Battery 1 and 2 to OFF? - ANSWER
Wait until APU indicates "OFF" on the EICAS
How long must you wait between the 1st and 2nd APU start attempt? - ANSWER 60
seconds
The APU provides: - ANSWER Electrical power and bleed air.
If Battery 1 is deferred, you can start the APU provided that a DC GPU is available? -
ANSWER FALSE
Once an engine is started, you inadvertently turn the APU off before realizing that the
APU must be on for takeoff performance. What is the most appropriate action? -
ANSWER You can turn the APU back to ON within the 60-second APU cool down
period and it will not shutdown.
ATC clears you to descend via the RIIVER TWO arrival into LAX. In order for VNAV to
utilize the vertical mode "PTH" you must have at least: - ANSWER -A top of descent
displays in your vertical profile
- VNAV is active
- the lowest cleared altitude is set in your altitude preselect window
In order to fly a CAT II approach, the ERJ 175 requires two separate Air Data Systems
(ADS) to be operative. - ANSWER TRUE
If the FO's Air Data Systems (ADS) fails, what is the reversionary logic? - ANSWER
Automatic Reversion to ADS 3
The pilot should reference the Flight director during a stall and verify that it is showing
below the horizon. - ANSWER FALSE
The Flight Path Angle (FPA) shows: - ANSWER The actual path of the AC relative to
the horizon.
The PF should reference the FD for wind-shear escape guidance. - ANSWER TRUE
At FL 330, one engine flames out and the FADEC is unable to relight the engine. What
is the most appropriate speed for drift down? - ANSWER Green dot.
The bank limiting is unavailable in which FMA lateral mode? - ANSWER LNAV
regardless of altitude
If the "F-BUG" disappears before total slate/flap retraction, what information can the
pilot use to retract the remaining flaps/slats? - ANSWER Green dot + 10 kts
VALIDATION LATEST UPDATE 2025
Approaching the airport, you are 15 miles from the runway at 3000' AGL. As you
configure for the AC for landing, when would you expect the hydraulic ACMP's 1 and 2
to turn on? - ANSWER When the flaps are selected to any position greater than 0.
You are single-engine taxiing on engine 2. With the flaps extended, the parking brake
released, and no other actions taken, which hydraulic pumps would be operating? -
ANSWER ACMP 3A and EDP 2
What are the backup hydraulic pumps for system 1 & 2 called? - ANSWER ACMPs (AC
Motor Pumps)
What is the primary purpose of the PTU? - ANSWER It assists gear extension or
retraction should the right engine/ EDP fail.
The H-PBIT will run automatically when all 3 hydraulic systems are pressurized and: -
ANSWER Hydraulic reservoir temperature is at or above 10C OR H-PBIT timer is at 0
hours regardless of temperature.
On the post flight external inspection, you notice fluid leaking from the nose wheel gear
assembly. Which hydraulic system would you expect to be the source of this leak? -
ANSWER Hydraulic system 2
If Hydraulic pump 3A fails during taxi out to the runway, will hydraulic pump 3B
automatically turn on? - ANSWER No
In system 3, ______ is the primary hydraulic pump. - ANSWER 3A
To check the hydraulic reservoir temperature, pressure and quantity, go to the _______.
- ANSWER Hydraulic synoptic page on the MFD.
In the event of a total hydraulic systems 1 & 2 failure the only way to stop the aircraft is
with reverse thrust? - ANSWER False (Dedicated accumulator stores enough pressure
for 6 emergency brake uses)
The PBE (Protective Breathing Equipment) provides Oxygen by: - ANSWER Pulling the
mask apart with two hands activates each of the oxygen cylinders which provides up to
15 minutes of oxygen.
When cleaning the oxygen mask, it is acceptable to use alcohol wipes on the lenses
and rubber components of the mask. - ANSWER False
,Halon Fire extinguishers can be used for what kind of fires? - ANSWER A, B and C fires
(Ordinary combustibles, Flammable liquids, live electrical equipment)
In the case of partial slide deployment: - ANSWER Stop immediately and notify
maintenance.
In the case of an emergency evacuation the PIC must make every effort to preserve
aircraft documents and mx records. - ANSWER True
Should the cockpit door become inaccessible, how can the flight crew evacuate the AC?
- ANSWER Out of the Direct view (DV) window using the escape ropes.
During an emergency descent the crew oxygen mask provides: - ANSWER -sufficient
oxygen for all crew members
- 98 minutes in Normal at 10,000ft
- 22 minutes in 100%
Water fire extinguishers can be used for Class ___ fires. - ANSWER Class A (Ordinary
combustibles)
How can you identify that a cockpit flashlight has been sufficiently charged? - ANSWER
Flashing red LED.
If the humidity indicator on the PBE is showing blue.... - ANSWER It is functioning
properly.
During the originating flow with the APU running, the pilot presses and holds the Fire
extinguisher test button for more than 10 seconds, the APU will turn off. - ANSWER
True
At FL350 you experience an IDG failure. After completing the appropriate QRC/ QRH,
you elect to start the APU. What altitude must you descend to in order to start the APU?
- ANSWER FL300
The APU will automatically shut down for a fire in- flight? - ANSWER False
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be operated? - ANSWER FL330
While starting the APU, the APU master switch is first rotated to "ON"/ Prior to rotating
the APU master switch to "START" what should be verified? - ANSWER -EICAS must
be energized for at least 30 seconds
-No APU FAIL messages displayed on EICAS
- APU indication on the EICAS changes from OFF to the APU control parameters.
, When powering down the APU, using the Leaving the Airplane Checklist, what
indication are you looking for prior to switching Battery 1 and 2 to OFF? - ANSWER
Wait until APU indicates "OFF" on the EICAS
How long must you wait between the 1st and 2nd APU start attempt? - ANSWER 60
seconds
The APU provides: - ANSWER Electrical power and bleed air.
If Battery 1 is deferred, you can start the APU provided that a DC GPU is available? -
ANSWER FALSE
Once an engine is started, you inadvertently turn the APU off before realizing that the
APU must be on for takeoff performance. What is the most appropriate action? -
ANSWER You can turn the APU back to ON within the 60-second APU cool down
period and it will not shutdown.
ATC clears you to descend via the RIIVER TWO arrival into LAX. In order for VNAV to
utilize the vertical mode "PTH" you must have at least: - ANSWER -A top of descent
displays in your vertical profile
- VNAV is active
- the lowest cleared altitude is set in your altitude preselect window
In order to fly a CAT II approach, the ERJ 175 requires two separate Air Data Systems
(ADS) to be operative. - ANSWER TRUE
If the FO's Air Data Systems (ADS) fails, what is the reversionary logic? - ANSWER
Automatic Reversion to ADS 3
The pilot should reference the Flight director during a stall and verify that it is showing
below the horizon. - ANSWER FALSE
The Flight Path Angle (FPA) shows: - ANSWER The actual path of the AC relative to
the horizon.
The PF should reference the FD for wind-shear escape guidance. - ANSWER TRUE
At FL 330, one engine flames out and the FADEC is unable to relight the engine. What
is the most appropriate speed for drift down? - ANSWER Green dot.
The bank limiting is unavailable in which FMA lateral mode? - ANSWER LNAV
regardless of altitude
If the "F-BUG" disappears before total slate/flap retraction, what information can the
pilot use to retract the remaining flaps/slats? - ANSWER Green dot + 10 kts
