NUR502 (NUR 502) Week 2 Test - Answered 100% Correctly | Summer 2025/26.

CHAPTER 3 1. Which of the following coenzymes is(are) necessary for normal red blood cell nuclear maturation and DNA synthesis pathway? A) Vitamin D B) Folate C) Calcium D) Vitamin B12 E) Both Folate and Vitamin B12 2. Von Williebrand and factor is directly involved in: A) Platelet adhesion and aggregation. B) Platelet production C) Formation of the fibrin clot D) Clot dissolution 3. ____ are two important cofactors necessary in the coagulation cascade. A) Fibrinogen and Von Williebrand factor B) Thromboxane A2 and Calcium C) Fibrin and thrombin D) Fibrinogen and Calcium 4. A 50-year-old man is having an acute myocardial infarction and will be administered a recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). The medication activates plasminogen in order to: A) Decrease platelet adhesion B) Increase clotting time. C) Promote fibrinolysis D) Promote coronary vasodilation 5. A 25-year-old woman comes in complaining of night sweats and at times gets chills. She is losing weight unintentionally. She has no other complaints. A lymph node in her neck that measures 3cm and is painless is palpated. The most likely diagnosis is: A) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma B) Hodgkin Lymphoma C) Burkitt Lymphoma D) Multiple Myeloma 6. In Hodgkin lymphoma, B cells can become defective as a result of: A) T-cell inactivation of B cells B) Premature apoptosis due to lack of differentiation C) Errors in immunoglobulin gene arrangements D) Enhanced conversion into plasma B memory cells.7. A 30-year-old man is complaining of a cough, difficulty breathing, and fatigue that he has had for about a month. The cough is nonproductive, and he denies fever. He attributes his symptoms to his asthma, which he had as a child. He borrowed an inhaler like he would use for his asthma, but he states it doesn’t seem to be working. A chest X ray reveals a mediastinal mass and mediastinal nodes. Based on these findings, which type of cancer is the most likely diagnosed? A) Hodgkin Lymphoma B) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma C) Myelodysplastic Syndrome D) Ewing Sarcoma 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of non-Hodgkin Lymphoma in comparison to Hodgkin lymphoma? A) It accounts for only 10% of all lymphomas B) Reed Sternberg cells are generally present C) Multiple lymph nodes are usually involved D) Incidence is higher in young adults 9. A mother brings in her 7-year-old son for evaluation. The mother states her son has not been eating well. When questioned, the boy states he is not eating because he feels “bumps” in his neck and his face is getting big. The mother notes that his face looks different. The family just moved from Africa. The vital signs are normal, and his height and weight are normal for his age. Physical exam findings are unremarkable except for enlarged tonsils and asymmetrical facial bone distortion and nontender, enlarged lymph nodes palpated in his head and neck region. Based on these findings, which type of childhood lymphoma is the most likely diagnosis? A) Burkitt Lymphoma B) Large Cell Lymphoma C) Lymphoblastic lymphoma D) Hodgkin lymphoma 10. Abnormal immunoglobulins known as M proteins and free light chains produced by plasma cells are characteristics of: A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma B) Multiple Myeloma C) Myelodysplastic syndrome D) Acute myelogenous leukemia 11. Most lymphomas arise in: A) T Cells B) Reed Sternberg cells C) B cells D) NK cells12. A 66-year-old black man comes in complaining of back pain. Diagnostic tests are done and include an X-ray, a complete blood count with differentials, and a comprehensive metabolic panel (e.g., glucose, potassium, calcium, albumin). Which findings are consistent with multiple myeloma? A) Hypocalcemia B) High Platelet level C) High neutrophil count D) Diffuse well-defined “punched out “lytic lesions 13. A patient with myelodysplastic syndrome is at risk for the development of which of the following types of hematologic cancer? A) Acute myelogenous leukemia B) Acute lymphocytic leukemia C) Multiple myeloma D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia 14. Which chromosomal abnormality is commonly associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia? A) Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 B) Defects in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene C) Inversion at chromosome 22 D) Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22 leading to a fusion protein known as BCR-ABL 15. Abnormalities in which immature precursor leukocyte cells are associated with leukemia are known as: A) Bands B) Blast C) Reticulocytes D) Granulocytes 16. A 5-year-old child is brought in by his parents who reports that she has not been eating well. And they think she is losing weight even though her belly looks bloated. They also noticed that she is limping when she walks. Physical examination reveals a pale, quiet girl. Small bruises are noted on her shins and upper arms. Her heart sound and lungs sound normal. She has hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. The remainder of the exam is normal. Which type of hematologic cancer should be suspected? A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B) Acute myelogenous leukemia C) Myeloblastic syndrome D) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma 17. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by red blood cells that are: A) Normocytic and normochromicB) Microcytic and hypochromic C) Macrocytic and normochromic D) Microcytic and normochromic 18. A 60-year-old woman is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The transferrin level is high with this type of anemia because: A) The microcytic RBCs are defective B) There is not enough iron to bind C) The body is trying to deliver more iron D) More iron is stored 19. A 5-year-old male child has a bleeding disease that is characterized by area of hemorrhage in the joints and muscles after minor injuries. Laboratory tests reveal a deficiency of a coagulation factor activate in the early phase of blood coagulation (formation of intrinsic thromboplastin). What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Thrombocytopenia B) Hemophilia C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome D) Protein C deficiency 20. A 55-year-old woman has hypochromic, microcytic anemia. The most likely cause is: A) Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency B) Hemolysis of red blood cells due to autoantibodies C) Iron deficiency resulting from chronic gastrointestinal blood loss D) Replacement of bone marrow by metastatic tumor 21. Which of the following is a common feature of all forms of leukemia? A) Reduction in leukocytes leading to bone marrow destruction B) Proliferation of malignant lymphocytes altering leukocyte production C) Tumor cell masses in the bone marrow usually result in bone destruction D) Uncontrolled proliferation of malignant leukocytes causing an overcrowding of bone marrow and abnormal hematopoiesis 22. A Patient is diagnosed with a vitamin B12 deficiency. What dietary recommendations should be made to increase his B12 levels? A) Increase red meat consumption B) Consume more lactose-free products C) Increase vegetable and reduce red meat consumption D) Increase fiber consumption 23. Parents just learned that their infant son has sickle cell anemia based on newborn screening. They want to know what kind of symptoms he might get from the disease. What would the parents be told? A) Symptoms at first usually consist of low back painB) Your baby’s hands and feet may swell C) Your baby may become insensitive to pain D) Your baby may develop a heart murmur 24. Which of the following triggers can precipitate a sickle cell crisis? A) Fever B) Overhydration C) Dehydration D) Stress E) Fever, Dehydration, and stress True or False? Large amounts of folic acid are stored in the body for long periods of time. - FALSE CHAPTER 4 1. Cardiac cells are able to generate an impulse to contract even without an external stimulus. This is called: A) Excitability B) Action potential C) Automaticity D) Chronotropic effect 2. On an electrocardiogram (EKG), the P wave represents: A) Atrial depolarization B) Ventricular depolarization C) Atrial repolarization D) Ventricular repolarization 3. The QRS wave of an electrocardiogram (EKG) is produced by: A) Depolarization of the atria B) Repolarization of the atria C) Depolarization of the ventricles D) Repolarization of the ventricles 4. Stimulation of alpha receptors results in: A) Vasoconstriction (Alpha 1) and Vasodilation (alpha 2) B) Vasodilation (alpha 1) and vasoconstriction (alpha 2) C) Bronchodilation and increase heart rate D) Increased heart rate (alpha 1) and increased contractility (alpha 2) 5. A healthy 40-year-old man was sitting and having his blood drawn for routine labs. He suddenly becomes faint, and his heart rate and blood pressure drop. He quickly awakens. What caused these symptoms?A) His vagus nerve was stimulated B) His blood pressure dropped C) He had a seizure D) He had an episode of postural hypotension 6. Factors that affect stroke volume include: A) Preload B) Heart rate C) Contractility D) Afterload E) Preload, contractility, and afterload 7. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway: A) Is activated by renin B) Acts to decrease loss of sodium in urine C) Increases in activity in response to blood loss. D) Can be blocked to help lower blood pressure E) All of these are correct 8. What is the mechanism of death following cardiac tamponade? Compression of the heart by blood on the pericardial sac, which impairs filling in diastole 9. A 62-year-old man had a left ventricular myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago. He arrives at the emergency room complaining of chest pain that is sharp and came on suddenly. The pain is in the front of his chest. He states when he breathes in it hurts more and sitting up and leaning forward decreases the pain. A 12-lead electrogram will most likely reveal: A) ST-segment elevation in the left ventricle leads B) ST segment depression in the left ventricle leads C) Diffused ST-segment elevation D) New Q waves with reciprocal changes 10. Which of the following statements related to ineffective endocarditis (bacterial endocarditis) is not correct? A) It is a complication of valvular heart disease B) Fibrin-platelet thrombi form on rough valve surface; bacteria implant in the thrombus and incite inflammation C) Microorganisms never implant on a normal heart valve D) Part of valve vegetation may break loose and be carried into the circulation as emboli 11. A patient presents the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain. On examination, you note a temperature of 102.5 a white count of 20,000/uL, and a friction rub near the lower left sternal border when the breath is held. What is the likely diagnosis?Pericarditis 12. With mitral valve prolapse, the leaflets: A) Are narrow impending forward blood flow during systole B) Prolapse into the right atrium causing altered flow C) Collapse into the left atrium during systole D) Calcify, which prevents proper opening 13. A 70-year-old woman comes in after a syncope episode. She said she fainted while she was gardening. She said she’s been feeling a bit fatigued and short of breath but attributes this to not sleeping well. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard. Based on these feelings, a common valvular disorder, and the most likely is: A) Mitral regurgitation B) Mitral stenosis C) Aortic regurgitation D) Aortic stenosis 14. An 80-year-old patient in the intensive care unit with an overwhelming systemic infection begins to exhibit splinter hemorrhages under her fingernails, hematuria, and petechia. What would be a likely cause? A) Cardiac tamponade B) Ineffective endocarditis C) Dilated cardiomyopathy D) Pericarditis 15. A 55-year-old man has been complaining of feeling short of breath, which he feels has been worsening over the past 4-5 months. He smokes one pack of cigarettes per day for the last 30 years, and he is a recovering alcoholic. He reports being sober for the past 6 months. A transthoracic doppler reveals systolic dysfunction. Which type of cardiomyopathy is most likely present? A) Restrictive cardiomyopathy B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with obstruction C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy without obstruction D) Dilated cardiomyopathy 16. A 19 year old athlete went out for his first day of football practice. He experienced sudden cardiac death. The cause of death was determined to be cardiomyopathy. It was most likely _____ cardiomyopathy. A) Dilated B) Hypertrophic C) Restrictive D) Dystrophic17. A 40-year-old man has a family history of one brother who died f heart disease at the age of 30 and a cousin who had a heart attack at the age of 40. He doesn’t know his history on his father’s side and his mother is 75 years old and is healthy other than hypertension. He had a transthoracic echocardiogram that reveals thick stiff ventricular walls, particularly in the interventricular septum. There is reduced relaxation during ventricular filling and diastolic dysfunction. These findings are consistent with: A) Dilated cardiomyopathy B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C) Restrictive Cardiomyopathy D) Dystrophic cardiomyopathy 18. A 62 year old woman is complaining of palpitations and feeling dizzy. She said this happened yesterday, and she sat down and went away. She has a history of hypertension and is taking irbesartan (an angiotensin receptor blocker0. Her vital signs are as follows: Temperature, 98.8; pulse irregular, 110 beats per minute; respiratory rate, 20 per minute; blood pressure, 110/70 mm/Hg. An electrocardiogram will likely reveal: A) Ventricular tachycardia B) Sinus Tachycardia C) Atrial fibrillation D) Second-degree atrioventricular block 19. Patients with atrial fibrillation are commonly prescribed anticoagulation to: A) Decrease the heart rate B) Prevent myocardial infarction C) Prevent heart failure D) Prevent ischemic stroke 20. The CHA2DS2-VASc criteria used to determine the risk for thromboembolism with atrial fibrillation includes: A) Diabetes insipidus B) Hypertension C) Gender D) Age E) Hypertension, gender, and age 21. Which of the following is a characteristic of ventricular remodeling in heart failure? A) Results in left ventricle dilated and hypertrophy B) Causes beta-adrenergic desensitization with decrease in heart rate C) Causes preload reduction and subsequent fluid retention D) Results in improved contractility due to decreased myocyte loss22. A patient with a history of myocardial infarction is told he has stage C heart failure, and he wants to know what this means the description provided will include: A) Stage C means you are at risk of heart failure B) Stage C means your heart failure was due to coronary heart disease C) Staging is used to determine the severity of heart failure, and stage C means you are showing clinical signs of heart failure. D) Stage C refers to your functional capacity and ability to do things with activity 23. An infant is diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which of the following is accurate pertaining to this case? A) The infant has an opening between the right and left atria B) The infant will likely have difficulty breathing and difficulty with breathing and gaining weight C) The infant has an opening between the pulmonary artery and aorta D) The infant will be cyanotic 24. An infant is diagnosed with a small septal defect (VSD). Which of the following is accurate pertaining to this case? A) The infant will most likely be asymptomatic B) Pulmonary blood flow is usually decreased C) The infant will have a murmur and cyanosis D) Shunting goes from the right ventricle to the left ventricle 25. A patient with a history of stable angina states that he has recently experienced an increase in the number of attacks, which occur at times when he is walking. What should you suspect? A) The patient continues to have stable angina B) The patient has developed unstable angina C) The patient has experienced an acute MI D) The patient has a subendocardial necrosis 26. Why do Cardiac enzymes rise after an acute myocardial infarction? A) White cells are attracted to the site of muscle injury B) Injured fibers increase their synthesis of cardiac muscle enzymes C) Cardiac enzymes leak from the damaged muscle fibers into the bloodstream D) Blood flow to the injured muscle is increased 27. A 12-lead EKG is conducted on a 65-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings represents an area that is electrically dead? A) ST segment depression B) ST segment elevation C) Pathologic Q waves D) Prolonged ST segment28. A fever; dry, cracked lips; a reddish tongue; and a rash on the extremities is characterized of which vascular disorder in children? A) Raynaud’s disease B) Kawasaki disease C) Eisenmenger syndrome D) Buerger disease 29. In a patient with acute coronary syndrome, what is the goal time from presentation to hospital to opening of the artery (i.e., door-to-balloon time)? A) 30 minutes or less B) 60 minutes or less C) 90 minutes or less D) 120 minutes or less 30. The most likely place for a thrombosis to form postoperatively is: A) The lungs B) The left side of the heart C) The legs D) Anywhere in the body 31. A severely obese patient presents to the clinic with edema to the right lower extremities that is impairing ambulation. On inspection, the healthcare provider notes that the edema does not indent with pressure, the skin on the right lower extremities is thick and rough, and distal pulses are present and equal bilateral. The healthcare provider should expect which of the following: A) Peripheral vascular disease B) Congestive heart failure C) Deep vein thrombosis D) Lymphedema 32. Which of the following individuals is the most likely to have a silent myocardial infarction (MI)? A) A young male who smokes B) A middle-aged female who has hypertension C) A 40-year-old pregnant female D) An obese male diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 33. Preeclampsia develops as a result of: A) Placental vascular alterations stimulating the maternal inflammatory response B) Increased placental perfusion as a result of shunting from the mother. C) Development of antibodies against the placenta D) Fluid overload from physiological volume increases in pregnancy34. Which of the following clinical manifestations is a compensatory mechanism to the initial stage of shock? A) Decreased mean arterial pressure B) Elevated body temperature C) Vascular vasodilation D) Increased heart rate 35. Septic shock is commonly caused by: Gram-negative bacteria 36. Which of the following strategies is implemented when sepsis is suspected? A) Administer anticoagulants B) Administer fluids if lactate levels are low C) Administer broad spectrum antibiotics D) Administer glucocorticoids to reduce inflammation Hematopoiesis: Blood cell production stimulus for RBC is ongoing, occurring in the INER and spleen of the fetus and only in bone marrow after birth leading to hypoxia and blood loss. Erythropoietin production in the fetus vs in the adults: Kidney=Adults, Liver=Fetus Mature erythrocytes are removed from the bloodstream by? Spleen, tissue macrophages Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasite invasion? Eosinophil (WBC) leukocytes HL is characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another, the development of systemic symptoms, and the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. A plastic anemia (AA) and the development of pancytopenia: Lack of erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets What term is used to identify thrombi that occlude arterioles and capillaries and are made up of platelets with minimal fibrin and erythrocytes? (TTP) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura Muscle cell and depolarizations: Sodium/ potassium ATpase transport pump vasospasm What is Raynaud’s disease: Some areas of the body feel numb and cool in circumstances. Constriction of blood supply Varicose veins? They are dilated engorged veins due to improper venous valve functionEighth Joint National Committee (JNC 8) recommendation for the blood pressure goal in diabetics and for hypertensive patients 60 years older? Diabetic=140/80 Over 60=150/90 For hypertensive patients with a history of heart failure, what pharmacologic treatment to use? Diuretics & RAS inhibitors (ACE/ARBs) Cardiogenic shock results from the inability of the heart to pump adequate blood to tissues and end organs Which cardiomyopathy can be the result of HIV? Dilated Cardiomyopathy (Eccentric ventricular hypertrophy The 6 P’s associated with peripheral artery disease: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paranesthesia, Paralysis, Poikilothermia