NUR 215 Exam 2: Infection, Hygiene,
Comfort, Sensory & Perception, Pain, Physical
Activity & Immobility | Questions and Answers
plus Rationale | New 2026/27 Update
1. Which represent the main groups of pathogenic microorganisms seen in a
healthcare setting? Select all that apply.
• A) Viruses
• B) Bacteria
• C) Fungi
• D) Prions
• E) Parasites
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The main groups of pathogenic microorganisms encountered in
healthcare settings include viruses, bacteria, and fungi. While prions and parasites
are also pathogens, the question asks for the "main groups" as identified in the
document, which specifically lists viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
2. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) is working to
reduce which healthcare-related infections? Select all that apply.
• A) Surgical site infections
• B) Multi-drug resistant organisms
• C) Ventilator-associated Pneumonia
• D) Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
• E) Bloodstream infections
,Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: The USDHHS has established national targets to reduce healthcare-
associated infections (HAIs). These include surgical site infections, infections
caused by multi-drug resistant organisms, ventilator-associated pneumonia, and
catheter-associated urinary tract infections. While bloodstream infections are also
a major concern, the document specifically lists the four options provided.
3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia. During the course of
hospitalization, the client develops shingles, caused by the herpes zoster virus,
related to a history of varicella. Which type of infection is the shingles?
• A) Primary
• B) Secondary
• C) Opportunistic
• D) Nosocomial
Correct Answer: B) Secondary
Rationale: A secondary infection occurs when a client with a pre-existing
infection (in this case, pneumonia) acquires a new infection. The shingles (herpes
zoster) is a reactivation of the varicella virus that occurs due to the client's
weakened immune system from the primary illness, making it a secondary
infection.
4. List the correct order of the chain of infection.
• A) Pathogen Exists → Pathogen Multiplies → Portal of exit and contact with
another organism → Mode of transmission / Contact with a susceptible
person → Susceptible host/pathogen is no longer contained
• B) Pathogen Exists → Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Susceptible
host → Pathogen Multiplies
, • C) Susceptible host → Pathogen Exists → Pathogen Multiplies → Portal of
exit → Mode of transmission
• D) Pathogen Exists → Mode of transmission → Portal of exit → Susceptible
host → Pathogen Multiplies
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: The chain of infection is a sequence of events that must occur for an
infection to spread. The correct order is: (1) Pathogen Exists, (2) Pathogen
Multiplies, (3) Portal of exit and contact with another organism, (4) Mode of
transmission / Contact with a susceptible person, and (5) Susceptible
host/pathogen is no longer contained. This sequence describes the progression
from the pathogen's presence to its transmission to a new host.
5. Which would be considered a bloodborne pathogen exposure?
• A) Contact with a contaminated surface
• B) Needlestick Injury
• C) Inhaling airborne droplets
• D) Touching a client's intact skin
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: A needlestick injury is a classic example of a bloodborne pathogen
exposure. It involves a percutaneous injury that can transmit bloodborne
pathogens such as Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV from an infected client to a
healthcare worker. The other options are not direct bloodborne exposures.
6. Which are examples of primary defenses of the body against infection? Select
all that apply.
• A) Normal Flora
• B) Skin
, • C) Saliva
• D) Fever
• E) Phagocytosis
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Primary defenses are the body's first line of defense against infection.
They are physical and chemical barriers that prevent pathogens from entering the
body. Normal flora (A) compete with pathogens, skin (B) is a physical barrier, and
saliva (C) contains enzymes (like lysozyme) that kill bacteria. Fever (D) and
phagocytosis (E) are secondary defenses.
7. The nurse enters the room of a client to perform wound care and administer
medications. When should the nurse apply clean gloves? Select all that apply.
• A) During medication administration
• B) Prior to removing soiled dressings
• C) Before applying clean dressings
• D) Before treating a new patient
• E) Before touching the client's intact skin
Correct Answers: B, C
Rationale: Clean gloves should be worn when there is a risk of contact with
blood, body fluids, mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or contaminated items.
The nurse should apply gloves prior to removing soiled dressings (B) and before
applying clean dressings (C). Gloves are not typically required for routine
medication administration (A) unless there is a risk of exposure. Gloves should be
worn when treating a new patient only if contact with body fluids is anticipated.
Gloves are not required for touching intact skin (E).
8. Which describes the intentional release, or threat of release, of disease-
producing organisms with the intent of causing illness, fear, or death?
Comfort, Sensory & Perception, Pain, Physical
Activity & Immobility | Questions and Answers
plus Rationale | New 2026/27 Update
1. Which represent the main groups of pathogenic microorganisms seen in a
healthcare setting? Select all that apply.
• A) Viruses
• B) Bacteria
• C) Fungi
• D) Prions
• E) Parasites
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: The main groups of pathogenic microorganisms encountered in
healthcare settings include viruses, bacteria, and fungi. While prions and parasites
are also pathogens, the question asks for the "main groups" as identified in the
document, which specifically lists viruses, bacteria, and fungi.
2. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) is working to
reduce which healthcare-related infections? Select all that apply.
• A) Surgical site infections
• B) Multi-drug resistant organisms
• C) Ventilator-associated Pneumonia
• D) Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
• E) Bloodstream infections
,Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: The USDHHS has established national targets to reduce healthcare-
associated infections (HAIs). These include surgical site infections, infections
caused by multi-drug resistant organisms, ventilator-associated pneumonia, and
catheter-associated urinary tract infections. While bloodstream infections are also
a major concern, the document specifically lists the four options provided.
3. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia. During the course of
hospitalization, the client develops shingles, caused by the herpes zoster virus,
related to a history of varicella. Which type of infection is the shingles?
• A) Primary
• B) Secondary
• C) Opportunistic
• D) Nosocomial
Correct Answer: B) Secondary
Rationale: A secondary infection occurs when a client with a pre-existing
infection (in this case, pneumonia) acquires a new infection. The shingles (herpes
zoster) is a reactivation of the varicella virus that occurs due to the client's
weakened immune system from the primary illness, making it a secondary
infection.
4. List the correct order of the chain of infection.
• A) Pathogen Exists → Pathogen Multiplies → Portal of exit and contact with
another organism → Mode of transmission / Contact with a susceptible
person → Susceptible host/pathogen is no longer contained
• B) Pathogen Exists → Portal of exit → Mode of transmission → Susceptible
host → Pathogen Multiplies
, • C) Susceptible host → Pathogen Exists → Pathogen Multiplies → Portal of
exit → Mode of transmission
• D) Pathogen Exists → Mode of transmission → Portal of exit → Susceptible
host → Pathogen Multiplies
Correct Answer: A)
Rationale: The chain of infection is a sequence of events that must occur for an
infection to spread. The correct order is: (1) Pathogen Exists, (2) Pathogen
Multiplies, (3) Portal of exit and contact with another organism, (4) Mode of
transmission / Contact with a susceptible person, and (5) Susceptible
host/pathogen is no longer contained. This sequence describes the progression
from the pathogen's presence to its transmission to a new host.
5. Which would be considered a bloodborne pathogen exposure?
• A) Contact with a contaminated surface
• B) Needlestick Injury
• C) Inhaling airborne droplets
• D) Touching a client's intact skin
Correct Answer: B)
Rationale: A needlestick injury is a classic example of a bloodborne pathogen
exposure. It involves a percutaneous injury that can transmit bloodborne
pathogens such as Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV from an infected client to a
healthcare worker. The other options are not direct bloodborne exposures.
6. Which are examples of primary defenses of the body against infection? Select
all that apply.
• A) Normal Flora
• B) Skin
, • C) Saliva
• D) Fever
• E) Phagocytosis
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Primary defenses are the body's first line of defense against infection.
They are physical and chemical barriers that prevent pathogens from entering the
body. Normal flora (A) compete with pathogens, skin (B) is a physical barrier, and
saliva (C) contains enzymes (like lysozyme) that kill bacteria. Fever (D) and
phagocytosis (E) are secondary defenses.
7. The nurse enters the room of a client to perform wound care and administer
medications. When should the nurse apply clean gloves? Select all that apply.
• A) During medication administration
• B) Prior to removing soiled dressings
• C) Before applying clean dressings
• D) Before treating a new patient
• E) Before touching the client's intact skin
Correct Answers: B, C
Rationale: Clean gloves should be worn when there is a risk of contact with
blood, body fluids, mucous membranes, non-intact skin, or contaminated items.
The nurse should apply gloves prior to removing soiled dressings (B) and before
applying clean dressings (C). Gloves are not typically required for routine
medication administration (A) unless there is a risk of exposure. Gloves should be
worn when treating a new patient only if contact with body fluids is anticipated.
Gloves are not required for touching intact skin (E).
8. Which describes the intentional release, or threat of release, of disease-
producing organisms with the intent of causing illness, fear, or death?
