RELIAS ED RN A TESTBANK EXAM 2026/2027 PRACTICE QUESTIONS
AND CURRENT UPDATED STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM
COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS)
A NEW UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS
A+ |INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF |JUST RELEASED
1. An adult patient is brought to the emergency department in
pulseless ventricular fibrillation. CPR is underway, and the team has
just delivered the first shock. What is the correct dosage and
frequency for administering Epinephrine IV/IO?
A) 1 mg every 1–2 minutes
B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
C) 0.5 mg every 3–5 minutes
D) 1 mg after every shock delivery
CORRECT ANSWER: B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
Rationale: According to ACLS guidelines, Epinephrine 1 mg should
be administered every 3 to 5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Administering it more frequently can cause severe vasoconstriction
and tachycardia, while less frequent dosing reduces coronary
perfusion pressure.
,2. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is MOST likely to
suffer from what condition?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Diabetes Insipidus
D) Myxedema coma
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Diabetes Insipidus
Rationale: Traumatic brain injury can lead to deficiency of anti-
diuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in diabetes insipidus. This
condition is characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and dilute urine.
3. A patient presents after sustaining a roll-over motor vehicle
accident. They are complaining of pain around the mid-upper back.
On your initial triage assessment, you find that the patient has
preserved motor function below L5 but is suffering from a loss of
sensory function. The assessment findings are consistent with:
A) Posterior cord syndrome
B) Central cord syndrome
C) Anterior cord syndrome
D) Autonomic syndrome
,CORRECT ANSWER: A) Posterior cord syndrome
Rationale: Posterior cord syndrome results in loss of proprioception
and vibration sense (sensory loss) with preserved motor function.
This is consistent with the patient's presentation of preserved motor
function below L5 but sensory loss.
4. A patient arrives with acute onset of central chest pain. The
patient is tachycardic and tachypneic and appears very anxious and
restless. What would be the MOST important initial intervention for
this patient?
A) Obtain electrocardiogram
B) Administer nitroglycerin
C) Administer oxygen
D) Obtain venous blood gas
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Administer oxygen
Rationale: In a patient with acute chest pain and signs of respiratory
distress (tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety), ensuring adequate
oxygenation is the priority. Oxygen should be administered to
maintain SpO₂ ≥ 94% while further assessment is performed.
, 5. A patient who is 27 weeks pregnant presents with painless bright
red vaginal bleeding. What condition correlates with the presenting
symptoms?
A) Abruptio placenta
B) Placenta Previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Placenta Previa
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third
trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa. This condition
occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical
os.
6. What is a common assessment finding in a patient with a tension
pneumothorax?
A) Petechial chest rash
B) Distended neck veins
C) Equal chest wall expansion
D) Flattened neck veins
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Distended neck veins
AND CURRENT UPDATED STUDY GUIDE ACCURATE EXAM
COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS)
A NEW UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS
A+ |INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF |JUST RELEASED
1. An adult patient is brought to the emergency department in
pulseless ventricular fibrillation. CPR is underway, and the team has
just delivered the first shock. What is the correct dosage and
frequency for administering Epinephrine IV/IO?
A) 1 mg every 1–2 minutes
B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
C) 0.5 mg every 3–5 minutes
D) 1 mg after every shock delivery
CORRECT ANSWER: B) 1 mg every 3–5 minutes
Rationale: According to ACLS guidelines, Epinephrine 1 mg should
be administered every 3 to 5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Administering it more frequently can cause severe vasoconstriction
and tachycardia, while less frequent dosing reduces coronary
perfusion pressure.
,2. A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is MOST likely to
suffer from what condition?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Cerebral palsy
C) Diabetes Insipidus
D) Myxedema coma
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Diabetes Insipidus
Rationale: Traumatic brain injury can lead to deficiency of anti-
diuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in diabetes insipidus. This
condition is characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and dilute urine.
3. A patient presents after sustaining a roll-over motor vehicle
accident. They are complaining of pain around the mid-upper back.
On your initial triage assessment, you find that the patient has
preserved motor function below L5 but is suffering from a loss of
sensory function. The assessment findings are consistent with:
A) Posterior cord syndrome
B) Central cord syndrome
C) Anterior cord syndrome
D) Autonomic syndrome
,CORRECT ANSWER: A) Posterior cord syndrome
Rationale: Posterior cord syndrome results in loss of proprioception
and vibration sense (sensory loss) with preserved motor function.
This is consistent with the patient's presentation of preserved motor
function below L5 but sensory loss.
4. A patient arrives with acute onset of central chest pain. The
patient is tachycardic and tachypneic and appears very anxious and
restless. What would be the MOST important initial intervention for
this patient?
A) Obtain electrocardiogram
B) Administer nitroglycerin
C) Administer oxygen
D) Obtain venous blood gas
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Administer oxygen
Rationale: In a patient with acute chest pain and signs of respiratory
distress (tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety), ensuring adequate
oxygenation is the priority. Oxygen should be administered to
maintain SpO₂ ≥ 94% while further assessment is performed.
, 5. A patient who is 27 weeks pregnant presents with painless bright
red vaginal bleeding. What condition correlates with the presenting
symptoms?
A) Abruptio placenta
B) Placenta Previa
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Placenta Previa
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third
trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa. This condition
occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical
os.
6. What is a common assessment finding in a patient with a tension
pneumothorax?
A) Petechial chest rash
B) Distended neck veins
C) Equal chest wall expansion
D) Flattened neck veins
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Distended neck veins
