WGU D236 Objective Assessment V1– Pathophysiology Guide (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) | 100% Verified Questions & Answers | Grade A

WGU D236 Objective Assessment V1– Pathophysiology Guide (Latest 2026/ 2027 Update) | 100% Verified Questions & Answers | Grade A Question: What are two pulmonary causes leading to respiratory acidosis? a. Asthma and shortness of breath b. Hyperventilation and fever c. Cystic fibrosis and hypoventilation d. Anemia and pain c. Cystic fibrosis and hypoventilation Which issue would a child with Neurobehavioral Disorder Associated with Prenatal Alcohol Experts (HD-PAE) exhibit? a. Nearsightedness b. Trouble planning c. Frequent nausea d. Helpfulness b. Trouble planning Which sign is associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Impaired mental flexibility b. Blurred vision c. Head drop d. Slowed thought processing c. Head drop Which classification of drugs can trigger hemolytic anemia? a. Nitrates b. Diuretics c. Cephalosporins d. CNS stimulants c. Cephalosporins A patient records documents headaches with memory defects. The patient's color and temperature are unusual, and the patient reports pain at night. Which condition is described? a. Angina pectoris b. Atherosclerosis c. Myocardial infarction d. Thrombophlebitis d. Thrombophlebitis Which condition is caused by Adenovirus? a. Mononucleosis b. Erythema infection c. Gastroenteritis d. Upper respiratory infection d. Upper respiratory infection Classify each condition as either an upper tract infection or a lower tract infection. Answer options may be used more than once or not at all. Select your answers from the pull-down list Laryngitis - Upper Rhinitis - Upper Pneumonia - Lower COPD - Lower Pharyngitis - Upper Asthma - Lower Laryngitis - Upper, Rhinitis - Upper, Pharyngitis - Upper, Pneumonia - Lower, COPD - Lower, Asthma - Lower Which two infections affect the lower respiratory tract? Choose 2 answers a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Respiratory mycoses c. Acute laryngitis d. Pulmonary tuberculosis b. Respiratory mycoses d. Pulmonary tuberculosis Which symptom is associated with Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. Arthralgias b. Dark urine c. Koilonychia d. Tachycardia a. Arthralgias What is a symptom of malaria? a. Warm over a vein b. Myalgia c. Tachycardia d. Muscle spasms b. Myalgia What is a risk factor for malignant hypertension? a. Cirrhosis of the liver b. Kidney failure c. Diabetes d. Anemia b. Kidney failure A patient record indicates a type of hypertension that is typically above 180/120 and can cause serious damage to organ tissue. It was treated as a medical emergency. Which type of hypertension did this patient have? a. Pulmonary b. Malignant c. Essential d. Renal b. Malignant A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An echocardiogram showed vegetations. Which disease is described? a. Stenosis b. Pericarditis c. Myocarditis d. Endocarditis d. Endocarditis Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally absent RBC production and results in a patient having an inability to fight infection and having a tendency to bleed? a. Aplastic anemia b. Folic acid deficiency anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Iron deficiency anemia a. Aplastic anemia A patient record document reports fatigue, shortness of breath, and vomiting. The patient was given medication for crushing chest pain that radiated to the back and jaw. The patient's blood showed elevated cardiac enzyme levels. Which condition is described? a. Congestive heart failure b. Angina pectoris c. Atrial fibrillation d. Myocardial infarction d. Myocardial infarction What are known triggers for vaso-occlusive crises, such as Sickle Cell Disease? a. Alkalosis and insomnia b. High-fat diet and hyperoxia c. Acidosis and dehydration d. Reduced stress and warm environmental temperature c. Acidosis and dehydration The principal diagnosis in a patient's discharge summary is Bell's palsy. What is a condition that causes this? a. Lyme disease b. Cerebral aneurysm c. Alzheimer's disease d. Cerebrovascular accident a. Lyme disease What are the common signs of retinoblastoma? a. Peripheral shadows and seeing black spots b. Clear iris and cloudy pupil c. Halos around lights and photopsia d. Strabismus and leukocoria d. Strabismus and leukocoria What are the common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis? a. Abnormal Sweating b. Sudden Edema c. Constipation d. Weakness d. Weakness What are samples of peripheral neuropathy? a. Uncontrolled movements and muscle weakness b. Chest pain and leg edema c. Hyperreflexia and enhanced sensation of the lower extremities d. Jugular vein distention and hematomas a. Uncontrolled movements and muscle weakness A patient who has diabetes presents with mild fever, erythema, and edema in the groin area with drainage. Gram stain reveals a staphylococcal bacterial infection. Which condition is described? a. Dermatophytosis b. Carbuncle c. Pediculosis pubis d. Keratosis plans b. Carbuncle A middle-aged female presents with symptoms of muscle tenderness and fatigue. She also reports the death of her grandmother, which occurred three months ago, as the time period in which she has noticed an increase in symptoms. Which condition is described? a. Fibromyalgia b. Myasthenia gravis c. Polymyositis d. Tendonitis a. Fibromyalgia What is a common symptom of Multiple Sclerosis? a. Abnormal Sweating b. Sudden Edema c. Constipation d. Weakness d. Weakness A stool specimen examination reveals fecalith and bacteria. A CT scan shows pouch-like herniation in the sigmoid colon. The patient is asymptomatic, and there is no evidence of bleeding. Which condition is described? a. Inguinal hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Peptic ulcer d. Diverticulosis d. Diverticulosis Which disease is communicable and paralyzes muscles as early as six hours from exposure? a. Lyme disease b. Malaria c. Botulism d. West Nile Virus c. Botulism Progress notes indicate that a patient's wound has become more painful, swollen, and red. Based on this information, which type of infection is indicated? a. Myelitis b. MRSA c. Molluscum contagiosum d. Meningococcemia b. MRSA What characterizes Type 2 myocardial infarction? a. Atherosclerotic plaque rupture b. Lack of oxygen c. Da without biomarkers d. Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) b. Lack of oxygen What describes the functions of diffusion? a. It is the process by which molecules move from high- concentration areas to low-concentration areas. b. It is the process by which solvent molecules pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one. c. It is a process by which certain molecules pass through the plasma membrane with the help of carrier proteins. d. It is a process by which a substance requires energy to pass through a membrane against a concentration gradient. a. It is the process by which molecules move from high- concentration areas to low-concentration areas. Which best describes the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis? a. The pathophysiology includes joint swelling and deformity, and intense inflammation with joint erosion. b. It is an autoimmune disease with an unknown antigen. c. The most commonly affected joints are the hand and metacarpophalangeal joints. d. It is a degenerative joint disease caused by aging or excessive trauma to a joint. a. The pathophysiology includes joint swelling and deformity, and intense inflammation with joint erosion. (Picture of a leg) Which type of curvature of the spine is shown in the image? a. Kyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Lordosis d. Normal c. Lordosis A middle-aged female presents with symptoms of muscle tenderness and fatigue. She also reports the death of her grandmother, which occurred three months ago, as the time period in which she has noticed an increase in symptoms. Her impact exercise and acupuncture. a. Fibromyalgia b. Myasthenia gravis c. Polymyositis d. Tendonitis a. Fibromyalgia A patient was diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Which related result might be noted on this patient's record? a. Elevated RBC count15 | Page b. Elevated FSH levels c. Elevated C-reactive protein d. Elevated BUN c. Elevated C-reactive protein What does the renal system do to deal with disturbances in the acid-base balance? a. Prevent the absorption of sodium and potassium b. Increases ventilation to drop the H+ ion level c. Blocks the arterial walls from absorbing electrolytes d. Regulates the excretion or reabsorption of H+ and HCO-3 d. Regulates the excretion or reabsorption of H+ and HCO-3 What are the buffer systems that absorb or donate H+ ions to prevent large swings in blood pH? Choose 2 answers. a. The atrial natriuretic buffering system b. The intracellular fluid buffering system c. The diffusion and osmosis buffering system d. The renal buffering system e. The carbonic-acid and bicarbonate system f. The phosphate buffering system e. The carbonic-acid and bicarbonate system A patient's records indicate a diagnosis of a staphylococcal skin infection (often referred to as a "superbug"), which caused a boil to develop on the patient's buttock. Symptoms included red, swollen skin with pus. a. Scabs b. Itchiness c. Scaliness d. Warm to touch d. Warm to touch Which accurately describes a chromosomal alteration? a. Turners' syndrome is a disorder in which a female has completely or partially missing X chromosomes b. Type 2 DM (T2DM) is caused by family history, behavior, and other factors c. Hypertension is always linked to the Y chromosomes and environmental factors d. Y chromosomes as hemophilia is associated with the X- chromosomes a. Turners' syndrome is a disorder in which a female has completely or partially missing X chromosomes What is the primary system responsible for maintaining fluid homeostasis within the body? a. Interatrial fluid (IAF)18 | Page b. Extra natriuretic fluid [ENF) c. D-type diastolic peptides (DDP) d. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS] d. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS] What is a symptom found in patients with stage 1 Lyme disease? a. Tremors b. Bull's eye rash c. Nausea d. Swollen lymph nodes b. Bull's eye rash What are the characteristics of helper T cells? a. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines. b. They destroy infected cells by producing proteins targeting cell membranes. c. They are non-responsive during active infections. d. They bind to infected cells and are activated by cytokines. a. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines. What are two types of benign tumors? Choose 2 answers a. Adenoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma d. Osteoma a. Adenoma d. Osteoma Which term describes a solution such as 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) relative to red blood cells? a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic c. Hypertonic d. Exotonic b. Isotonic A patient's record indicates treatment via cryoablation. For which type of cancer is this patient being treated? a. Breast cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Ovarian cancer d. Testicular cancer b. Prostate cancer A female patient presents with chronic dyspareunia, pelvic pain, increased abdominal girth, fever, and vomiting. After an HE4 test and positive abdominal ultrasound. Which condition is described? a. Ovarian tumor b. Dysmenorrhea c. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) d. Benign fibroadenoma a. Ovarian tumor A patient presents with decreased alertness, mental confusion, skin that is pale and scaly, weight loss, easy bruising or bleeding, and decreased urine output. Which condition is this patient showing signs? a. Renal calculi b. End-stage renal disease c. Hydronephrosis d. Polycystic kidney disease b. End-stage renal disease Which is a common cause of delayed puberty? a. Urinary tract infection b. Premature birth c. Chronic illness d. High-fat die c. Chronic illness What is a clinical presentation of Human Papillomavirus (HPV)? a. Diarrhea b. Condyloma acuminata c. Penile edema d. Urethritis b. Condyloma acuminata Which is a common risk factor for cholecystitis? a. Frequent dietary changes b. Female sex c. History of blood clots d. Chronic dehydration b. Female sex What is a known cause of erectile dysfunction? a. Obesity b.Excessive caffeine use c. Cancer d. Heart disease d. Heart disease A patient reports nausea, vomiting, dull abdominal ache, and pruritus. On physical examination, edema of the legs, ascites, and jaundice were documented. The patient has a history of long-term acetaminophen therapy. Laboratory findings included an aminotransferase. Which condition is described? a. Cirrhosis b. Cholelithiasis c. Pancreatitis d. Hepatitis A a. Cirrhosis A 50-year-old patient who works as a sandblaster has the following symptoms: dyspnea, cough with sputum, tachypnea, and pulmonary hypertension. A chest X-ray shows small nodular lesions throughout, but mainly concern. Which condition is described? a. Silicosis b. Bronchiectasis c. Asbestosis d. Pulmonary tuberculosis a. Silicosis Which is a common symptom of dysmenorrhea? a. Fatigue b. Urinary frequency c. Hematuria d. Constipation a. Fatigue Which statement represents the difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease? a. Ulcerative colitis represents one specific form of Crohn's disease. b. Ulcerative colitis is more prevalent in younger individuals, while Crohn's disease is more prevalent in those over 40 c. Ulcerative colitis is included in irritable bowel syndrome, while Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease. d. Ulcerative colitis affects the mucosal layers of the intestinal wall, while Crohn's disease affects the whole thickness of the intestinal wall d. Ulcerative colitis affects the mucosal layers of the intestinal wall, while Crohn's disease affects the whole thickness of the intestinal wall A bone marrow biopsy result shows fatty tissue with megakaryocytes and large bone marrow cells with multiple nuclei. The patient is placed on a bone marrow recipient list. Which condition does this describe? a. Iron-deficiency anemia b. Acute blood-loss anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Aplastic anemia d. Aplastic anemia What are two phases of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)? Choose 2 answers. a. Homogeneous phase b. Developmental phase c. Dynamic phase d. Latent phase e. Blast Crisis phase f. Accelerated phase e. Blast Crisis phase f. Accelerated phase A patient record indicates the following: Chief complaint: Lump around the neck region, breathing difficulty, and discomfort in swallowing. General history: The patient is a woman from Haiti who developed this condition during her adolescence. Physical exam: A visible lump on the base of the neck and above the sternum. Pain scale: 6 (patient states that sometimes it causes sudden onset pain). Diagnostic test: Thyroid ultrasound revealed a non-toxic lump. Radioimmunoassay test results revealed abnormal TSH levels. Treatment: Increased dietary supplementation of iodine; nutritional supplements prescribed. Which thyroid condition is being described? a. Endemic or colloid goiter b. Hyperthyroidism c. Graves' disease d. Thyroid cancer a. Endemic or colloid goiter Which parasite causes malaria? a. Plasmodium b. Enterobius vermicularis c. Trichuris trichiura d. Entamoeba histolytica a. Plasmodium What is one of the two classifications of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)? a. Nonproliferative b. Acute c. Sporadic d. Exuciatic c. Sporadic Which assessment findings are associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Bradycardia and decreased urine output b. Weak, thready pulse and warm, dry skin c. Dyspnea and audible wheezing d. Unlabored respirations and leg edema c. Dyspnea and audible wheezing A patient's record indicates a presentation of the following symptoms: Hematuria, Proteinuria, Oliguria. Which condition may this patient be diagnosed with?29 | Page a. Glomerulonephritis b. Pleuritis c. Cystitis d. Urethritis a. Glomerulonephritis What are the complications of tympanic membrane perforation? a. Short-term hearing loss and rhinitis b. Middle ear infections and mastoiditis c. Meningitis and blurred vision d. Intracranial infections and bilateral hearing loss b. Middle ear infections and mastoiditis A 70-year-old female patient follows up on X-ray results. Her original complaint was a nasal ulcer that would not heal. She reports a dry cough, shortness of breath, and a 10-pound weight loss during the past month. Her husband worked for a nuclear power plant for 30 years. X-ray: Granuloma formation and diffuse interstitial pneumonitis. Which condition is described?30 | Page a. Bronchiectasis b. Asthma c. Berylliosis d. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Berylliosis A patient presents with fatigue, fever, and night sweats. An echocardiogram shows vegetations. Which disease is described? a. Pericarditis b. Stenosis c. Myocarditis d. Endocarditis d. Endocarditis Which condition allows blood to flow back into the left atrium from the left ventricle? a. Mitral valve insufficiency b. Aortic valve insufficiency c. Aortic valve stenosis d. Mitral valve stenosis a. Mitral valve insufficiency A primary care physician documented the following symptoms and history in a patient's record: persistent abdominal pain radiating to the back, anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. The laboratory report showed glycosuria and hyperglycemia. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was conclusive and revealed the patient had which condition? a. Colorectal cancer b. Liver cancer c. Gastrointestinal cancer d. Pancreatic cancer d. Pancreatic cancer The patient also had childhood rheumatic fever and atrial circulation. Which condition is described? a. Mitral stenosis b. Ventricular hypertrophy c. Atrium dystrophy d. Ventricular septal defect a. Mitral stenosis Which sign is associated with acute blood loss? a. Expedited capillary refill time b. Decreased urine output c. Retrosternal crushing chest pain d. Flank pain b. Decreased urine output What are two possible causes of peripheral neuropathy? Choose 2 answers: a. Vitamin B12 deficiency b. Lead poisoning c. Brain attack d. Cardiac arrest a. Vitamin B12 deficiency and b. Lead poisoning A 58-year-old male patient presents with involuntary muscle contractions, muscle weakness, atrophy, and twitching in the lower extremities. An electromyography is ordered, and a muscle biopsy is performed. The patient is subsequently prescribed an antiglutamate drug to treat the condition. Which diagnosis is described? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Parkinson's disease c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Restless syndrome c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Which disorder is a cause of secondary hypertension? a. Obstructive sleep apnea b. Tuberculosis c. Polycythemia d. Endocarditis a. Obstructive sleep apnea What are known triggers for vaso-occlusive crises, such as Sickle Cell Disease? a. Alkalosis and insomnia b. High-fat diet and hyperoxia c. Acidosis and dehydration d. Reduced stress and warm environmental temperature c. Acidosis and dehydration A patient's record documents report of fatigue, shortness of breath, and vomiting. The patient was given medication for crushing chest pain that radiated to the neck and jaw. The patient's blood test showed elevated cardiac enzyme levels. Which condition is described? a. Myocardial infarction b. Atrial fibrillation c. Angina pectoris a. Myocardial infarction What are common signs associated with Down syndrome? a. Flattened nose and a single palmar crease on the hands b. Hypertension and hypertonia c. Crescent-shaped red blood cells and missing wisdom teeth d. Widened eyes and a long neck a. Flattened nose and a single palmar crease on the hands How does your body respond to an infection? T cells produce cytokines, which stimulate B cells. B cells produce antibodies. What is the role of DNA changes in congenital abnormalities? Mutations in genes or chromosomal abnormalities How does development disrupt congenital abnormalities? Alterations of DNA What describes factors that disrupt homeostasis and how do disruptions affect wellbeing? (ex) Fluid and electrolyte shifts can cause nausea/vomiting or dysrhythmias. What is RAAS? Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system: 1. Reduced blood flow causes kidneys to release renin produce angiotensin I converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II vasoconstriction release aldosterone kidneys conserve sodium and water result: less water lost in urine and blood pressure maintained. What is DKA? Increased anion gap, decreased HCO3 How do kidneys compensate for alkalosis? Retain H+ and excrete HCO3 What electrolyte increases with untreated acidosis? Potassium What is West Nile Virus? Transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito. Severe signs and symptoms: high fever, headache, and stiff neck What is Lyme disease? Tick-borne disease caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. What is Erythema infectiosum? A febrile upper respiratory illness in a child followed by the sudden appearance of red, flushed cheeks, "fifth disease" What are obesity and diabetes risk factors for in a child? Spina bifida What is Trousseau's sign? Arm/carpal spasm associated with hypocalcemia What is the cause and sign of spina bifida? Results from failure of neural tube to close. Sign - fluid-filled sac on lower back. Who is hemophilia more common in? Males What does prenatal exposure to alcohol include? ND-PAE, decreased brain function, FAS What are connective vs muscle tissue disorders? Connective - RA, Scleroderma, Lupus; Muscle - MS, Muscular dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravis What is Lupus? Inflammatory disorder characterized by joint pain and butterfly rash What is Myasthenia Gravis? It is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack own ACh receptors. This causes weakness of skeletal muscles over the course of the day, along with ptosis, double vision, and difficulty swallowing. What is dermatitis? Inflammation of the skin What is eczema? Noninfectious, inflammatory skin disease characterized by redness, blisters, scabs, and itching What is a decubitus ulcer? Sore caused by lying down for long periods of time What are fungal infections? Superficial, localized skin conditions or deep tissue infections caused by exposure to spores, may or may not be transmitted What is a benign neoplasm? Noncancerous growths, stationary, distinct borders What is a malignant neoplasm? Uncontrolled new tissue growth, irregular borders, spreads What is osteoporosis? The loss of bone mass often due to age, causing the bones to become porous, brittle, and easily fractured. What is osteomalacia? Disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency What is myoglobin? Red pigment that stores oxygen in muscle cells What is a bursa? Fluid-filled sac that allows for easy movement of one part of a joint over another What is rickets? A vitamin D deficiency in children, resulting in soft bones What is degenerative disk disease? A condition in which an intervertebral disk loses its normal structural integrity as a result of wear and tear, acute or repeated injuries, or aging What is Paget disease? Chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones, that can occur in any bone but most commonly affects the long bones of the legs, the lower spine, the pelvis, and the skull What is a comminuted fracture? Splintered into many pieces What are the three types of skin cancer? 1. Basal cell carcinoma, 2. Squamous cell carcinoma, 3. Melanoma What is basal cell carcinoma? Most common and least severe type of skin cancer; often characterized by light or pearly nodules. Rarely metastasizes, most common on face due to sun exposure What is squamous cell carcinoma? Type of skin cancer more serious than basal cell carcinoma; often characterized by scaly red crusted papules or firm nodules. What is melanoma? The most serious form of skin cancer, Caucasian males at highest risk, usually black or brown lesion What are consequences when the integumentary system is disrupted? Impaired immunity What are the types of burns? Superficial (1st degree) - red/painful, Partial- thickness (2nd degree) - wet/pink/painful, Full-thickness (3rd degree) - white/swollen/no pain What is vitiligo? Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches What is ischemic CVA vs hemorrhagic CVA? Ischemic - clot vs hemorrhagic - blood What is a subdural hematoma? Collection of blood under the dura mater What is Alzheimer's disease vs Parkinson's disease? Alzheimer's - affects language and memory, Parkinson's - affects all executive functioning What is Huntington's disease? What is Huntington's disease? What is sclerosis? Abnormal condition of hardening What disorders cause vision loss? Glaucoma - loss of peripheral vision, cataracts - cloudy vision, retinal detachment - floaters, flashes, curtain vision What is kyphosis? Excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back. What disorders cause hearing loss? Meniere's disease - changes in fluid in tube of inner ear (imbalance and vertigo), Otitis media - middle ear infection What are predisposing factors of ischemic stroke? A-fib, carotid stenosis, cerebral arteriosclerosis What is rheumatoid arthritis? A chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammation of the joints, stiffness, pain, and swelling that results in crippling deformities. Causes elevated WBC counts. What is cerebral contusion? The bruising of brain tissue as the result of a head injury that causes the brain to bounce against the rigid bone of the skull; symptoms: ringing in ears, severe headache, nausea/vomiting. What is TIA vs CVA? TIA - result when a cerebral artery is temporarily blocked and decreases blood flow to brain, Stroke - artery completely blocked leading to death of brain and permanent loss of certain functions What is multiple sclerosis? A chronic, irreversible disease of the central nervous system marked by damage to the myelin sheath. Plaques occur in the brain and spinal cord causing tremor, weakness, incoordination, paresthesia, and disturbances in vision and speech What is an aneurysm? Ballooning of a weakened portion of an arterial wall What is thrombus vs embolus? Thrombus = clot in arteries, embolus = dislodged traveling clot in arteries, blocks blood flow What is atherosclerosis? Hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to buildup of cholesterol plaques: 1. endothelial injury, 2. foam cell formation, 3. fatty streak formation What is angina pectoris? Chest pain, which may radiate to the left arm and jaw, that occurs when there is an insufficient supply of blood to the heart muscle What is myocardial infarction? The occlusion of one or more coronary arteries caused by plaque buildup (heart attack) What is endocarditis? Inflammation of the inner lining of the heart What is pericarditis? Inflammation of the pericardium (sack surrounding heart) What is benign vs malignant hypertension? Benign - "essential hypertension", chronic vascular damage due to sodium retention; malignant - acute vascular damage due to renin release What is a communicable disease? A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another. What is an infectious disease? A disease that is caused by a pathogen and that can be spread from one individual to another. What does myocardial infarction cause damage to? Arteries of: brain, retina, heart, kidneys. What is expected in right-sided heart failure? JVD (jugular vein distension) What characterizes hypertensive crisis? Systolic BP 180 What are the types of anemia? Aplastic (decreased or missing RBC production), Iron Deficiency, Folic Acid Deficiency, Vitamin B12 Deficiency/Pernicious, Hemolytic (breakdown of RBCs faster than produced), Sickle Cell (RBCs die too early, shortageof RBCs) Where does cancer originate from in leukemia? Bone marrow What are CD4 cells? Helper T cells that mature in thymus that activate B cells to create immunity What is Hodgkin's lymphoma? Distinguished from other lymphomas by the presence of large, cancerous lymphocytes known as Reed- Sternberg cells What is lymphocytosis? Abnormal increase in lymphocytes, asymptomatic What is stable angina? Predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest and/or nitroglycerin What is an upper respiratory tract infection? Common cold, laryngitis, croup, pharyngitis, rhinitis, sinusitis, and tonsillitis What is a lower respiratory tract infection? Pneumonia, bronchitis, tuberculosis What conditions lead to COPD? Smoking, asthma, dust, chemicals, genetics What is pneumonia? An inflammation in the lung caused by infection from bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, or resulting from aspiration of chemicals. Hear crackles and rhonchi What is asthma? Treatment-resistant bronchospasm, same category as COPD What is pneumothorax? Air in the pleural cavity caused by a puncture of the lung or chest wall What is cor pulmonale? Right-sided heart failure arising from chronic lung disease What is Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis? Carbon dust, seen in coal miners. Massive exposure leads to diffuse fibrosis ('black lung') What are common characteristics of chronic digestive system disorders? (Celiac, Crohn's, Colitis...) Abdominal pain, weight loss, changes in urination/bowel movements, bleeding, diarrhea, nausea/vomiting What are common characteristics of acute digestive system disorders? (GERD, IBS, Hiatal hernia...) Abdominal pain, bleeding, bloating, diarrhea, heartburn, nausea/vomiting What is pyelonephritis? Inflammation of the renal pelvis and kidney; caused by bacterial infection (commonly E. coli) What is glomerulonephritis? Inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys from injury or illness What are renal calculi (kidney stones)? Minerals in urine crystallize, most can pass, but some become too big and obstruct a ureter What is renal cell carcinoma? Cancerous tumor that arises from kidney tubule cells; flank pain, hematuria, abdominal lump What is end-stage renal disease (ESRD)? Any type of kidney disease in which there is little or no remaining kidney function, requiring the patient to undergo dialysis or kidney transplant for survival. Symptoms: nausea/vomiting, fatigue, change in urination, chest pain, HTN, AMS What is Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT)? Method used to replace normal kidney function by circulating the patient's blood through a hemofilter and returning it to the patient. Benefit over other dialysis - happens 24 hrs/day slower shift in electrolytes What is ulcerative colitis? Chronic inflammation of the colon with presence of ulcers - autoimmune and inflammatory bowel diseases What is diverticulitis? Inflammation of a diverticulum, especially in the colon, causing pain and disturbance of bowel function. Relieved by bowel movement, advise against enema and colonoscopy. What organ is targeted by the virus that causes Hepatitis C? Liver How do Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E spread? A and E - fecal/oral, BCD - blood, bodily fluids What is cholecystitis? Inflammation of the gallbladder; usually associated with gallstones (RUQ pain radiates to back) What causes GERD? Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to close What is pancreatitis? Inflammation of the pancreas, can be caused by gallstone blocking common bile duct What is Crohn's disease? A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the digestive tract, chronic symptoms: diarrhea, sores, fistula, weight loss What is Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)? Rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys; formerly called acute renal failure What are colon cancer symptoms/signs? 1. Right-sided - iron deficiency anemia, 2. Left- sided - obstruction, 3. "Apple core" lesion on barium enema, 4. Pencil-thin stools, 5. Hematochezia (bright red blood), 6. Colicky pain, 6. Partial obstruction What are risk factors for renal cancer? Smoking, overweight, HTN What are risk factors for bladder cancer? Smoking, occupational exposure to dyes (benzenes, aromatic amines), history of gross hematuria, 40 y/o, history of urologic disorder, history of irritative voiding symptoms, history of UTI, analgesic abuse, history of pelvic irradiation What is GFR (glomerular filtration rate)? Used to stage chronic renal disease What are common characteristics of endocrine system disorders? Dark skin spots, low BP, fatigue, nausea/vomiting/diarrhea What are common treatments for prostate and testicular cancers? Orchiectomy or radiation What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Inflammation and infection of organs in the pelvic region; symptoms: pain in pelvis, abdomen, vagina, during sex, during urination, cramps, vaginal discharge/odor What is thyroid cancer? Papillary carcinoma, lump in neck - dysphagia, voice changes What is Graves' disease? An autoimmune disorder that is caused by hyperthyroidism and is characterized by goiter and/or exophthalmos. Other symptoms/signs: tachycardia, thick patch of skin on legs, protruding eyes, weight loss, insomnia What is hypothyroidism? A disorder caused by a thyroid gland that is slower and less productive than normal - T3 and T4 are low, but TSH high. Chronic fatigue, brittle nails, constipation What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)? A complication of diabetes that is caused by having too little insulin; also called hyperglycemia. Can cause cerebral edema; lipolysis with ketone formation is a hallmark What causes diabetes? Type 1: beta cells in pancreas are destroyed (autoimmune), Type 2: overweight, body becomes insulin resistant, Gestational: hormones during pregnancy cause glucose levels to rise What is diabetes insipidus (DI)? Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not secreted, or there is a resistance of the kidney to ADH What is acromegaly? Abnormal enlargement of the extremities caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone by pituitary gland What is Cushing's disease? (Remember: ) - HYPERnatremia, HYPERtension, INCREASED blood volume, HYPOkalemia, HYPERglycemia What is gonorrhea? A sexually transmitted bacterial disease caused by a gonococcus bacterium that causes inflammation of the genital mucous membrane, PID, burning pain when urinating, and a discharge What is polycystic ovary syndrome? A condition caused by a hormonal imbalance in which the ovaries are enlarged by the presence of many cysts formed by incompletely developed follicles; elevated levels of androgens; symptoms/signs: infertility, irregular periods, hirsutism, insulin resistance Which STIs can be passed via birth canal? Gonorrhea, chlamydia What is endometriosis? A condition in which patches of endometrial tissue escape the uterus and become attached to other structures in the pelvic cavity What is triple-negative breast cancer? Patients lack estrogen and progesterone receptors, do not respond to hormone therapy (only chemo) What is antiandrogen therapy? (Spironolactone or flutamide) causes lack of testosterone erectile dysfunction or decreased bone density or hot flashes What is Cullen's sign? Ecchymosis in umbilical area, seen with pancreatitis What can anemia cause? Pelvic pain, menorrhagia, constipation, uterine leiomyomas What is epididymitis? Inflammation of the epididymis that is frequently caused by the spread of infection from the urethra or the bladder or by chlamydia What is chlamydia? A bacterial infection that affects the reproductive organs of both males and females; male symptoms include penile discharge, uncomfortable walking What is cryotherapy? Using cold for therapeutic purposes, used for prostate therapy What is Starling's Law of Capillary Forces and how does it cause edema? Starling's hypothesis states that the fluid movement due to filtration across the wall of a capillary is dependent on the balance between the hydrostatic pressure gradient and the pressure gradient across the capillary. This causes edema by the retention of water in the tissues instead of the vascular system. Why is it important to maintain a homeostatic balance of glucose in the blood? Glucose is used for energy and is not synthesized by the brain, so it is needed to maintain brain/motor functions How do Type I and Type II Diabetes compare and contrast? Type 1 - The body's immune system destroys the cells in the pancreas that produce insulin (typically in kids/teens), Type 2 - "insulin resistance" - when cells fail to respond normally to the hormone insulin. What is the difference between innate immunity and adaptive immunity? Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against pathogens. It is general and non-specific, which means it does not differentiate between types of pathogens. Adaptive immunity is a type of immunity that is built up as we are exposed to diseases or get vaccinated. How and why does our injury response result in the signs of redness, swelling, heat, and pain? Be sure to use chemokines, histamine, and vasodilation in your response. Our body first releases cytokines which produce inflammatory cells or chemokines directly to the affected area to stimulate healing. Vasodilation occurs simultaneously to facilitate quicker and easier movement of inflammatory cells to the area. How do you determine the probability of clinical outcomes given information about the parents (e.g., two heterozygous carriers of sickle cell disease)? In two heterozygous (two different gene sets) carriers (one dominant and one recessive gene), this creates a 50% chance outcome of offspring having sickle cell disease How do calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and calcitriol (Vitamin D) work together to maintain normal blood calcium levels? Calcitonin and PTH work oppositely to balance calcium. The three work together to shift calcium into bones, organs, and blood What is the function of osteocytes within lacunae of bone? Osteocytes maintain bone mass through anabolic activities; they promote bone repair through recruitment of osteoclast-mediated turnover What is bone remodeling? Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? Osteoclasts destroy old, degenerative cells to make room for new ones. Osteoblasts build new bone cells. Osteocytes facilitate this process and help retain calcium for bone strength and health. What is the process of articular degeneration? Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? Articular degeneration is also known as osteoarthritis. Macrophages are the primary cell involved, and they induce inflammation. How does denosumab treat osteoporosis? Denosumab is an antibody that slows down the natural rate your bones are broken down. It works by blocking a protein and suppressing the cells that break down bone. How does compartment syndrome develop? Which part of our body tends to develop compartment syndrome? How do patients typically recognize they may need to seek medical assistance for rhabdomyolysis? What is the most sensitive laboratory test for rhabdomyolysis? Compartment syndrome occurs when blood flow is restricted to an area for an extended period of time. It usually develops in extremities. Patients recognize rhabdomyolysis by new muscle pain and decreased urinary output, and it is detected by creatine kinase in the blood. What is a pulmonary embolism? What is a fat embolism? When might a patient develop a pulmonary embolism? When might a patient develop a fat embolism? How are they treated? Pulmonary embolism is when a blood clot is lodged in a pulmonary artery, usually caused by a traveling clot getting lodged. A fat embolism is when a clot of fat cells disrupts blood flow, usually after a bone fracture. PEs are treated with anticoagulants to thin the blood, while there is no specific treatment for FEs. What is albinism? What portions of the body are negatively affected by albinism? It is an alteration in a gene that has decreased pigment to skin, hair, and eyes. How does retinal detachment lead to vision loss? The areas where the retina detaches lose their blood supply and stop working, causing you to lose vision. What are two biomarkers that can be used to confirm a myocardial infarction occurred and what types of molecules are they? Troponin, creatine kinase What is lymph? Fluid that flows in the lymphatic system to return fluid from tissues into circulation What are lymph nodes? Filter interstitial fluid. Swollen glands mean you are fighting an infection What are Peyer's patches? The numerous areas of lymphoid tissue in the wall of the small intestine that are involved in the development of immunity to antigens present there. What is the difference between Hodgkin's Lymphoma and Non- Hodgkin's Lymphoma? If the Reed-Sternberg cell is not present, the lymphoma is classified as non-Hodgkin's. What is emphysema (COPD)? Overdistention of alveoli resulting in the ability to remove CO2 is called What is COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)? Disease with enlarged lung spaces, usually from smoking, can cause shortness of breath What are the three types of jaundice that may present as a result of liver dysfunction? Describe the cause of each Pre-hepatic: excessive breakdown of RBCs. Hepatic: loss of ability of liver to regulate bilirubin. Post- hepatic: due to blockage or obstruction What are the functions of the following parts of a nephron: glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, juxtaglomerular apparatus, proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct? Glomerulus filters blood. Bowman's capsule filters blood from glomerulus capillaries. Juxtaglomerular apparatus helps maintain proper flow and blood pressure. Proximal tubule reabsorbs filtrate. Loop of Henle reabsorbs salt and water from urine. Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct both reabsorb ions and water and promote homeostasis. What is endocarditis vs pericarditis? Endo - inflammation inside heart causing valves to not fully close - usually due to infection - treatment: antibiotics, valve repair; Peri - inflammation outside of heart causes heart to be compressed and not fully pump - from too much fluid/blood surrounding heart from trauma or heart attack - treatment: NSAIDs + steroids, pericardiocentesis. Both have same signs/symptoms: low oxygen and chest pain What is hypervolemia? Fluid volume excess, symptoms: muscle/chest pain, weakness, nausea/vomiting, palpitations What is hypernatremia? High sodium, symptoms: (Skin flushed), (Agitation), (Low-grade fever), (Thirst)