Antepartum and Intrapartum NCLEX COMPREHENSIVE BANK
PREDICTOR FINAL EXAM 2026-2027 AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS
COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS)
CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION||Oklahoma City
Community College - NUR 1524
The nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who is newly
diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which statement made by
the client indicates a need for further teaching?
1. "I should stay on the diabetic diet."
2. "I should perform glucose monitoring at home."
3. "I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin
production."
4. "I should be aware of any infections and report signs of infection
immediately to my obstetrician."
3."I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin
production."
Rationale: Exercise is safe for a client with gestational diabetes mellitus
and is helpful in lowering the blood glucose level. Dietary modifications
are the mainstay of treatment, and the client is placed on a standard
diabetic diet. Many clients are taught to perform blood glucose
monitoring. If the client is not performing the blood glucose monitoring
at home, it is performed at the clinic or obstetrician's office. Signs of
infection need to be reported to the obstetrician.
,The prenatal client asks the nurse about substances that can cross the
placental barrier and potentially affect the fetus. The nurse most
appropriately explains that which substances can cross this barrier?
Select all that apply.
1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Nutrients
4. Antibodies
5. Medications
Correct Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5
Rationale:Large particles such as bacteria cannot pass through the
placenta, but viruses, nutrients, medications, antibodies, and recreational
drugs can pass through the placenta and potentially affect the fetus.
Metabolic waste products of the fetus cross the placental membrane
from the fetal blood into the maternal blood. The maternal kidneys then
excrete them.
,On March 10, the nurse performed an initial assessment on a client
admitted to the labor and delivery unit for "rule out labor." The client has
not received prenatal care but is certain that the first day of her last
menstrual period (LMP) was July 7 the previous year. The nurse plans care
based on which interpretation?
1. The client is possibly in preterm labor.
2. The fetus may not be viable at delivery.
3. The client may require labor augmentation.
4. The fetus is at high risk for shoulder dystocia.
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale: According to Naegele's rule, by subtracting 3 months and
adding 7 days and 1 year to this client's LMP the nurse can determine that
her estimated date of delivery (EDD) is April 14. This client is in the labor
and delivery unit to be evaluated for the presence of labor more than 1
month before her EDD; therefore, she is possibly in preterm labor.
Viability is said to occur between the 22nd and 25th weeks of gestation.
This fetus is approximately 4 weeks before term. If this client truly is in
labor, the primary health care provider's plan would be to try to stop the
labor in order to prevent delivery at this early stage in the pregnancy. This
would eliminate option 3, labor augmentation. Because of the typical 36-
week gestational size of a fetus, 2200 to 2900 g, there would be no risk
for a difficult shoulder delivery.
, The nurse is performing an assessment on a pregnant client in the last
trimester with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. The nurse reviews the
assessment findings and determines that which finding is most closely
associated with a complication of this diagnosis?
1. Enlargement of the breasts
2. Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool
3. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods
4. Evidence of bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia can trigger disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC) because of the widespread damage to vascular
integrity. Bleeding is an early sign of DIC and should be reported to the
primary health care provider if noted on assessment. Options 1, 2, and 3
are normal occurrences in the last trimester of pregnancy.
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of gestational
trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole). The nurse understands that
which findings are associated with this condition? Select all that apply.
1. Vaginal bleeding
2. Excessive fetal activity
3. Excessive nausea and vomiting
4. Larger-than-normal uterus for gestational age
5. Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: 1, 3, 4, 5
Rationale: The most common findings of gestational trophoblastic
disease (hydatidiform mole) include vaginal bleeding, excessive nausea
and vomiting, larger-than-normal uterus for gestational age, elevated
levels of hCG, failure to detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive
instruments, and early development of gestational hypertension. Fetal
activity would not be noted.
PREDICTOR FINAL EXAM 2026-2027 AND PRACTICE QUESTIONS
COMPLETE ACCURATE EXAM REAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (RELIABLE SOLUTIONS)
CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION||Oklahoma City
Community College - NUR 1524
The nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who is newly
diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which statement made by
the client indicates a need for further teaching?
1. "I should stay on the diabetic diet."
2. "I should perform glucose monitoring at home."
3. "I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin
production."
4. "I should be aware of any infections and report signs of infection
immediately to my obstetrician."
3."I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin
production."
Rationale: Exercise is safe for a client with gestational diabetes mellitus
and is helpful in lowering the blood glucose level. Dietary modifications
are the mainstay of treatment, and the client is placed on a standard
diabetic diet. Many clients are taught to perform blood glucose
monitoring. If the client is not performing the blood glucose monitoring
at home, it is performed at the clinic or obstetrician's office. Signs of
infection need to be reported to the obstetrician.
,The prenatal client asks the nurse about substances that can cross the
placental barrier and potentially affect the fetus. The nurse most
appropriately explains that which substances can cross this barrier?
Select all that apply.
1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Nutrients
4. Antibodies
5. Medications
Correct Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5
Rationale:Large particles such as bacteria cannot pass through the
placenta, but viruses, nutrients, medications, antibodies, and recreational
drugs can pass through the placenta and potentially affect the fetus.
Metabolic waste products of the fetus cross the placental membrane
from the fetal blood into the maternal blood. The maternal kidneys then
excrete them.
,On March 10, the nurse performed an initial assessment on a client
admitted to the labor and delivery unit for "rule out labor." The client has
not received prenatal care but is certain that the first day of her last
menstrual period (LMP) was July 7 the previous year. The nurse plans care
based on which interpretation?
1. The client is possibly in preterm labor.
2. The fetus may not be viable at delivery.
3. The client may require labor augmentation.
4. The fetus is at high risk for shoulder dystocia.
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale: According to Naegele's rule, by subtracting 3 months and
adding 7 days and 1 year to this client's LMP the nurse can determine that
her estimated date of delivery (EDD) is April 14. This client is in the labor
and delivery unit to be evaluated for the presence of labor more than 1
month before her EDD; therefore, she is possibly in preterm labor.
Viability is said to occur between the 22nd and 25th weeks of gestation.
This fetus is approximately 4 weeks before term. If this client truly is in
labor, the primary health care provider's plan would be to try to stop the
labor in order to prevent delivery at this early stage in the pregnancy. This
would eliminate option 3, labor augmentation. Because of the typical 36-
week gestational size of a fetus, 2200 to 2900 g, there would be no risk
for a difficult shoulder delivery.
, The nurse is performing an assessment on a pregnant client in the last
trimester with a diagnosis of severe preeclampsia. The nurse reviews the
assessment findings and determines that which finding is most closely
associated with a complication of this diagnosis?
1. Enlargement of the breasts
2. Complaints of feeling hot when the room is cool
3. Periods of fetal movement followed by quiet periods
4. Evidence of bleeding, such as in the gums, petechiae, and purpura
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia can trigger disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC) because of the widespread damage to vascular
integrity. Bleeding is an early sign of DIC and should be reported to the
primary health care provider if noted on assessment. Options 1, 2, and 3
are normal occurrences in the last trimester of pregnancy.
The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of gestational
trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole). The nurse understands that
which findings are associated with this condition? Select all that apply.
1. Vaginal bleeding
2. Excessive fetal activity
3. Excessive nausea and vomiting
4. Larger-than-normal uterus for gestational age
5. Elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Correct answer: 1, 3, 4, 5
Rationale: The most common findings of gestational trophoblastic
disease (hydatidiform mole) include vaginal bleeding, excessive nausea
and vomiting, larger-than-normal uterus for gestational age, elevated
levels of hCG, failure to detect fetal heart activity even with sensitive
instruments, and early development of gestational hypertension. Fetal
activity would not be noted.
