UTA NURS 5434 Family III Final Exam 2026-2028 :
Actual Questions with Answers & Rationales for
Family Nurse Practitioner Program | Instant
Download Pdf
Exam Overview:
NURS 5434 (Family Nurse Practitioner III) is a 4-credit course at the University of Texas at
Arlington focusing on advanced concepts for primary care management of acute, chronic,
and complex health problems across the lifespan, with emphasis on adult wellness,
psychiatric, and cardiometabolic concepts . The comprehensive final exam covers all
modules, with heavy weight on Modules 6, 7, and 8 . This guide provides practice
questions with verified answers and detailed rationales for the 2025/2026 exam cycle .
EXAM FORMAT & SCOPE
Feature Detail
Course NURS 5434 – Family Nurse Practitioner III
Institution University of Texas at Arlington (UTA)
Coverage All modules (heavy emphasis on Modules 6, 7, 8)
Content Women's Health/Pregnancy, Pediatric HTN, Psychiatric Disorders
Areas (depression, anxiety, panic disorder, GAD), CAD & Lipid Management,
, USPSTF Screening Guidelines, Vaccinations, Smoking Cessation, HTN
Management
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH & PREGNANCY (Questions 1-40)
Q1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in
the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In contrast, placental abruption
presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness, and hypertonicity .
Q2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has a fundal height of 24 cm. What is the most
appropriate next step?
Answer: Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal gestational age in
weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more than 3 cm warrants ultrasound
evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating .
Q3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an amniocentesis that reveals a
karyotype of 47,XX,+21. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
,Rationale: 47,XX,+21 indicates an extra chromosome 21, which is trisomy 21 (Down
syndrome). Turner syndrome is 45,XO. Trisomy 18 is 47,XX,+18. Klinefelter syndrome is
47,XXY .
Q4. A 24-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation complains of severe nausea and
vomiting, weight loss of 8 pounds, and ketonuria. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting in
pregnancy with weight loss (>5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration, ketonuria, and
electrolyte abnormalities. It is more severe than typical morning sickness and may require
hospitalization .
Q5. A 30-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular contractions
every 3 minutes. On exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal heart
rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?
Answer: Notify the provider and prepare for possible emergency delivery
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. This is
a non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern requiring immediate intervention and possible
emergency delivery .
Q6. A 32-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation is being induced with oxytocin. She
has contractions every 2 minutes lasting 60 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 130
, bpm with moderate variability. What is the primary nursing action during oxytocin
induction?
Answer: Continuously monitor fetal heart rate and uterine contractions
Rationale: Oxytocin requires continuous monitoring of both fetal heart rate and uterine
activity to prevent hyperstimulation and fetal distress .
Q7. A 27-year-old GBS-positive woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with
spontaneous rupture of membranes. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Start IV penicillin or ampicillin at least 4 hours before delivery
Rationale: Prophylactic antibiotics (penicillin or ampicillin) should be given for at least 4
hours before delivery to prevent early-onset neonatal GBS sepsis .
Q8. A postpartum patient 24 hours after vaginal delivery has a temperature of 101.5°F
(38.6°C), uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Endometritis
Rationale: Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, typically presenting with fever,
uterine tenderness, and malodorous lochia in the postpartum period. Risk factors include
cesarean delivery, prolonged rupture of membranes, and multiple vaginal exams .
Q9. A 22-year-old woman requests emergency contraception after unprotected
intercourse 48 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?
Actual Questions with Answers & Rationales for
Family Nurse Practitioner Program | Instant
Download Pdf
Exam Overview:
NURS 5434 (Family Nurse Practitioner III) is a 4-credit course at the University of Texas at
Arlington focusing on advanced concepts for primary care management of acute, chronic,
and complex health problems across the lifespan, with emphasis on adult wellness,
psychiatric, and cardiometabolic concepts . The comprehensive final exam covers all
modules, with heavy weight on Modules 6, 7, and 8 . This guide provides practice
questions with verified answers and detailed rationales for the 2025/2026 exam cycle .
EXAM FORMAT & SCOPE
Feature Detail
Course NURS 5434 – Family Nurse Practitioner III
Institution University of Texas at Arlington (UTA)
Coverage All modules (heavy emphasis on Modules 6, 7, 8)
Content Women's Health/Pregnancy, Pediatric HTN, Psychiatric Disorders
Areas (depression, anxiety, panic disorder, GAD), CAD & Lipid Management,
, USPSTF Screening Guidelines, Vaccinations, Smoking Cessation, HTN
Management
SECTION 1: WOMEN'S HEALTH & PREGNANCY (Questions 1-40)
Q1. A 28-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding. The uterus is soft and non-tender. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in
the third trimester. The uterus is soft and non-tender. In contrast, placental abruption
presents with painful dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness, and hypertonicity .
Q2. A pregnant patient at 28 weeks has a fundal height of 24 cm. What is the most
appropriate next step?
Answer: Order an ultrasound to evaluate fetal growth
Rationale: Fundal height in centimeters should approximately equal gestational age in
weeks between 20 and 36 weeks. A discrepancy of more than 3 cm warrants ultrasound
evaluation for intrauterine growth restriction, oligohydramnios, or inaccurate dating .
Q3. A 35-year-old G3P2 at 16 weeks gestation has an amniocentesis that reveals a
karyotype of 47,XX,+21. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
,Rationale: 47,XX,+21 indicates an extra chromosome 21, which is trisomy 21 (Down
syndrome). Turner syndrome is 45,XO. Trisomy 18 is 47,XX,+18. Klinefelter syndrome is
47,XXY .
Q4. A 24-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation complains of severe nausea and
vomiting, weight loss of 8 pounds, and ketonuria. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting in
pregnancy with weight loss (>5% of pre-pregnancy weight), dehydration, ketonuria, and
electrolyte abnormalities. It is more severe than typical morning sickness and may require
hospitalization .
Q5. A 30-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with regular contractions
every 3 minutes. On exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced. The fetal heart
rate tracing shows late decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?
Answer: Notify the provider and prepare for possible emergency delivery
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and fetal hypoxia. This is
a non-reassuring fetal heart rate pattern requiring immediate intervention and possible
emergency delivery .
Q6. A 32-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks gestation is being induced with oxytocin. She
has contractions every 2 minutes lasting 60 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 130
, bpm with moderate variability. What is the primary nursing action during oxytocin
induction?
Answer: Continuously monitor fetal heart rate and uterine contractions
Rationale: Oxytocin requires continuous monitoring of both fetal heart rate and uterine
activity to prevent hyperstimulation and fetal distress .
Q7. A 27-year-old GBS-positive woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with
spontaneous rupture of membranes. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Start IV penicillin or ampicillin at least 4 hours before delivery
Rationale: Prophylactic antibiotics (penicillin or ampicillin) should be given for at least 4
hours before delivery to prevent early-onset neonatal GBS sepsis .
Q8. A postpartum patient 24 hours after vaginal delivery has a temperature of 101.5°F
(38.6°C), uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling lochia. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Answer: Endometritis
Rationale: Endometritis is an infection of the uterine lining, typically presenting with fever,
uterine tenderness, and malodorous lochia in the postpartum period. Risk factors include
cesarean delivery, prolonged rupture of membranes, and multiple vaginal exams .
Q9. A 22-year-old woman requests emergency contraception after unprotected
intercourse 48 hours ago. Which medication is most appropriate?
