NURS 5432 Final Exam Practice – {2 versions} Original
Board-Style Questions with Answers & Rationales (FNP I /
Family Health I) LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Coverage:
This exam is designed for NURS 5432 (Family Nurse Practitioner I) final exam preparation.
It covers core primary care content areas including prevention and screening, acute and
chronic disease management, women’s health, pediatrics, geriatrics, behavioral health, and
pharmacotherapeutics. Each question includes a clear answer and a concise rationale to
reinforce clinical reasoning and guideline-based care. Ideal for FNP students preparing for
the NURS 5432 final exam or seeking to strengthen their family practice knowledge.
Q1. A 42-year-old woman presents for a well-woman exam and asks when she should
start mammography screening. She has no family history of breast cancer. Which
guideline is most appropriate for average-risk women?*
Answer: Biennial mammography starting at age 40 is most appropriate for average-risk
women.
Explanation: USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women ages
40–74 at average risk.
Q2. A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a well-child visit. The parents report the
infant can sit with support, rolls over, and babbles. Which developmental milestone
finding requires further evaluation?*
Answer: Not bearing weight on legs when held upright requires further evaluation.
,Explanation: By 6 months, infants should bear some weight; absence may indicate
neuromuscular delay.
Q3. A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 12 weeks gestation presents for prenatal care. She
has a BMI of 32 and a family history of type 2 diabetes. Which screening approach is
most appropriate for gestational diabetes?*
Answer: Early screening at the first prenatal visit is most appropriate for high-risk
patients.
Explanation: ACOG/ADA recommend early glucose screening for high-risk pregnant
patients.
Q4. A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop and
inability to close the right eye. He has no limb weakness or speech changes. Which
diagnosis is most likely?*
Answer: Bell’s palsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Explanation: Isolated peripheral facial nerve palsy without other neuro deficits suggests
Bell’s palsy.
Q5. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has BP 158/96 mmHg
on three occasions. He has no diabetes or cardiovascular disease. Which initial
medication is most appropriate?*
Answer: A thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB is most appropriate.
,Explanation: First-line agents for uncomplicated hypertension include these classes
per ACC/AHA.
Q6. A 16-year-old patient presents with sore throat, fever, tender anterior cervical
lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar exudates without cough. Rapid strep test is positive.
Which antibiotic regimen is most appropriate?*
Answer: Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg once daily or 25 mg/kg twice daily for 10 days is most
appropriate.
Explanation: Amoxicillin is first-line for streptococcal pharyngitis in adolescents without
allergies.
Q7. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, ear pain, and a bulging, erythematous
tympanic membrane. The child appears well and has mild symptoms. Which
management approach is most appropriate?*
Answer: Observation with analgesia for 48–72 hours is most appropriate for mild AOM in
this age group.
Explanation: AAP guidelines allow watchful waiting for select children with mild acute
otitis media.
Q8. A 38-year-old woman requests contraception. She has a history of migraines with
aura, smokes 10 cigarettes daily, and has well-controlled hypertension. Which
contraceptive method is contraindicated?*
Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated.
, Explanation: Estrogen-containing contraceptives increase stroke risk in women with
migraines with aura who smoke.
Q9. A 65-year-old man presents for a Medicare wellness visit. He has no chronic
conditions and is asymptomatic. Which immunization is recommended at this age?*
Answer: Recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is recommended at age 50 and older.
Explanation: CDC recommends Shingrix for adults 50+ regardless of prior shingles
history.
Q10. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and pica. Labs show low
hemoglobin, low MCV, and low ferritin. Which diagnosis is most likely?*
Answer: Iron deficiency anemia is the most likely diagnosis.
Explanation: Microcytic anemia with low ferritin is classic for iron deficiency.
Q11. A 70-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss, getting lost in
familiar places, and difficulty managing finances. Which screening tool is most
appropriate for cognitive assessment?*
Answer: Mini-Cog or MoCA is most appropriate for cognitive screening.
Explanation: Brief cognitive screens help identify possible dementia in older adults.
Q12. A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has an A1c of 8.2% despite metformin
therapy. He has no cardiovascular disease. Which medication addition is most
Board-Style Questions with Answers & Rationales (FNP I /
Family Health I) LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
Coverage:
This exam is designed for NURS 5432 (Family Nurse Practitioner I) final exam preparation.
It covers core primary care content areas including prevention and screening, acute and
chronic disease management, women’s health, pediatrics, geriatrics, behavioral health, and
pharmacotherapeutics. Each question includes a clear answer and a concise rationale to
reinforce clinical reasoning and guideline-based care. Ideal for FNP students preparing for
the NURS 5432 final exam or seeking to strengthen their family practice knowledge.
Q1. A 42-year-old woman presents for a well-woman exam and asks when she should
start mammography screening. She has no family history of breast cancer. Which
guideline is most appropriate for average-risk women?*
Answer: Biennial mammography starting at age 40 is most appropriate for average-risk
women.
Explanation: USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women ages
40–74 at average risk.
Q2. A 6-month-old infant is brought in for a well-child visit. The parents report the
infant can sit with support, rolls over, and babbles. Which developmental milestone
finding requires further evaluation?*
Answer: Not bearing weight on legs when held upright requires further evaluation.
,Explanation: By 6 months, infants should bear some weight; absence may indicate
neuromuscular delay.
Q3. A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 12 weeks gestation presents for prenatal care. She
has a BMI of 32 and a family history of type 2 diabetes. Which screening approach is
most appropriate for gestational diabetes?*
Answer: Early screening at the first prenatal visit is most appropriate for high-risk
patients.
Explanation: ACOG/ADA recommend early glucose screening for high-risk pregnant
patients.
Q4. A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of right-sided facial droop and
inability to close the right eye. He has no limb weakness or speech changes. Which
diagnosis is most likely?*
Answer: Bell’s palsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Explanation: Isolated peripheral facial nerve palsy without other neuro deficits suggests
Bell’s palsy.
Q5. A 55-year-old patient with newly diagnosed hypertension has BP 158/96 mmHg
on three occasions. He has no diabetes or cardiovascular disease. Which initial
medication is most appropriate?*
Answer: A thiazide diuretic, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or CCB is most appropriate.
,Explanation: First-line agents for uncomplicated hypertension include these classes
per ACC/AHA.
Q6. A 16-year-old patient presents with sore throat, fever, tender anterior cervical
lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar exudates without cough. Rapid strep test is positive.
Which antibiotic regimen is most appropriate?*
Answer: Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg once daily or 25 mg/kg twice daily for 10 days is most
appropriate.
Explanation: Amoxicillin is first-line for streptococcal pharyngitis in adolescents without
allergies.
Q7. A 2-year-old child presents with fever, ear pain, and a bulging, erythematous
tympanic membrane. The child appears well and has mild symptoms. Which
management approach is most appropriate?*
Answer: Observation with analgesia for 48–72 hours is most appropriate for mild AOM in
this age group.
Explanation: AAP guidelines allow watchful waiting for select children with mild acute
otitis media.
Q8. A 38-year-old woman requests contraception. She has a history of migraines with
aura, smokes 10 cigarettes daily, and has well-controlled hypertension. Which
contraceptive method is contraindicated?*
Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated.
, Explanation: Estrogen-containing contraceptives increase stroke risk in women with
migraines with aura who smoke.
Q9. A 65-year-old man presents for a Medicare wellness visit. He has no chronic
conditions and is asymptomatic. Which immunization is recommended at this age?*
Answer: Recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is recommended at age 50 and older.
Explanation: CDC recommends Shingrix for adults 50+ regardless of prior shingles
history.
Q10. A 30-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pallor, and pica. Labs show low
hemoglobin, low MCV, and low ferritin. Which diagnosis is most likely?*
Answer: Iron deficiency anemia is the most likely diagnosis.
Explanation: Microcytic anemia with low ferritin is classic for iron deficiency.
Q11. A 70-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss, getting lost in
familiar places, and difficulty managing finances. Which screening tool is most
appropriate for cognitive assessment?*
Answer: Mini-Cog or MoCA is most appropriate for cognitive screening.
Explanation: Brief cognitive screens help identify possible dementia in older adults.
Q12. A 45-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has an A1c of 8.2% despite metformin
therapy. He has no cardiovascular disease. Which medication addition is most
