BIOL 252 Human Anatomy & Physiology II w/Lab |
Module 1 Exam Review and Answers -Summary |
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1. A researcher is investigating a novel hormone that acts via intracellular receptors.
Which of the following properties would most likely be associated with this hormone?
A. It is water-soluble and binds to cell surface receptors.
B. It is lipid-soluble and directly influences gene transcription.
C. It activates second messenger systems within seconds.
D. It is stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following best explains why the left ventricle has a thicker myocardial wall
than the right ventricle?
A. The left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs, requiring higher pressure.
B. The left ventricle must generate higher pressure to overcome systemic vascular resistance.
C. The left ventricle has a larger volume capacity, necessitating more muscle.
D. The left ventricle contracts more frequently than the right ventricle.
Answer: B
3. A patient has a hematocrit of 62%. Which of the following is the most likely underlying
cause?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Chronic kidney disease with erythropoietin deficiency
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Hemorrhage
Answer: C
4. During the cardiac cycle, the second heart sound (S2) is heard when:
A. The atrioventricular valves close.
B. The semilunar valves close.
C. Ventricular contraction begins.
D. Atrial contraction occurs.
Answer: B
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,5. Which of the following would increase the net filtration pressure in a capillary bed?
A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
C. Decreased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
Answer: D
6. A patient has a prolonged PR interval on ECG. Which of the following is the most likely
abnormality?
A. First-degree AV block
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Left bundle branch block
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements about erythropoietin (EPO) is correct?
A. EPO is produced by the liver in response to high oxygen levels.
B. EPO stimulates the production of erythrocytes from myeloid stem cells.
C. EPO acts primarily on lymphoid stem cells to produce lymphocytes.
D. EPO secretion is inhibited by androgens.
Answer: B
8. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with hyperglycemia and ketosis. Which
of the following best explains the ketosis?
A. Increased insulin promotes lipolysis and fatty acid oxidation.
B. Lack of insulin leads to increased glucagon, stimulating ketogenesis.
C. Excess glucose is converted to ketone bodies in the liver.
D. Peripheral tissues preferentially use ketone bodies due to insulin deficiency.
Answer: B
9. Which of the following blood vessels has the greatest total cross-sectional area?
A. Aorta
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venae cavae
Answer: C
10. A drug that blocks voltage-gated calcium channels in cardiac muscle cells would most
directly affect which phase of the action potential?
A. Phase 0 (rapid depolarization)
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, B. Phase 1 (early repolarization)
C. Phase 2 (plateau)
D. Phase 3 (rapid repolarization)
Answer: C
11. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L and an
arterial blood pH of 7.30. Which of the following best explains the relationship between
hyperkalemia and acidosis in this scenario?
A. Acidosis shifts potassium out of cells via H+/K+ exchange, exacerbating hyperkalemia.
B. Hyperkalemia directly impairs renal ammoniagenesis, worsening metabolic acidosis.
C. Aldosterone deficiency from renal damage reduces both potassium secretion and acid excretion.
D. Increased anion gap from uremic toxins causes both hyperkalemia and acidosis independently.
Answer: C
12. Which of the following best describes the role of the Na+/K+-ATPase in the thick
ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
A. It directly reabsorbs sodium via secondary active transport with potassium and chloride.
B. It establishes the electrochemical gradient that drives the NKCC2 cotransporter.
C. It secretes potassium into the tubular lumen to generate a positive charge.
D. It reabsorbs magnesium and calcium by paracellular diffusion.
Answer: B
13. A researcher measures the clearance of substance X and finds it exceeds the clearance
of inulin. Which of the following must be true about substance X?
A. It is both filtered and secreted.
B. It is neither filtered nor secreted.
C. It is filtered but not reabsorbed.
D. It is reabsorbed but not secreted.
Answer: A
14. Which of the following best explains why the urine concentrating mechanism in the
inner medulla depends on urea recycling?
A. Urea is actively transported into the interstitium by the collecting duct, raising osmolality.
B. Urea diffuses out of the inner medullary collecting duct, contributing to the high interstitial
osmolality.
C. Urea is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule and secreted in the loop, creating a countercurrent
multiplier.
D. Urea is impermeable in the thin descending limb, preventing washout of the gradient.
Answer: B
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Module 1 Exam Review and Answers -Summary |
LockDown Browser | Portage Learning
1. A researcher is investigating a novel hormone that acts via intracellular receptors.
Which of the following properties would most likely be associated with this hormone?
A. It is water-soluble and binds to cell surface receptors.
B. It is lipid-soluble and directly influences gene transcription.
C. It activates second messenger systems within seconds.
D. It is stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following best explains why the left ventricle has a thicker myocardial wall
than the right ventricle?
A. The left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs, requiring higher pressure.
B. The left ventricle must generate higher pressure to overcome systemic vascular resistance.
C. The left ventricle has a larger volume capacity, necessitating more muscle.
D. The left ventricle contracts more frequently than the right ventricle.
Answer: B
3. A patient has a hematocrit of 62%. Which of the following is the most likely underlying
cause?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Chronic kidney disease with erythropoietin deficiency
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Hemorrhage
Answer: C
4. During the cardiac cycle, the second heart sound (S2) is heard when:
A. The atrioventricular valves close.
B. The semilunar valves close.
C. Ventricular contraction begins.
D. Atrial contraction occurs.
Answer: B
Page 1
,5. Which of the following would increase the net filtration pressure in a capillary bed?
A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
C. Decreased interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
D. Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
Answer: D
6. A patient has a prolonged PR interval on ECG. Which of the following is the most likely
abnormality?
A. First-degree AV block
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Left bundle branch block
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements about erythropoietin (EPO) is correct?
A. EPO is produced by the liver in response to high oxygen levels.
B. EPO stimulates the production of erythrocytes from myeloid stem cells.
C. EPO acts primarily on lymphoid stem cells to produce lymphocytes.
D. EPO secretion is inhibited by androgens.
Answer: B
8. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with hyperglycemia and ketosis. Which
of the following best explains the ketosis?
A. Increased insulin promotes lipolysis and fatty acid oxidation.
B. Lack of insulin leads to increased glucagon, stimulating ketogenesis.
C. Excess glucose is converted to ketone bodies in the liver.
D. Peripheral tissues preferentially use ketone bodies due to insulin deficiency.
Answer: B
9. Which of the following blood vessels has the greatest total cross-sectional area?
A. Aorta
B. Arterioles
C. Capillaries
D. Venae cavae
Answer: C
10. A drug that blocks voltage-gated calcium channels in cardiac muscle cells would most
directly affect which phase of the action potential?
A. Phase 0 (rapid depolarization)
Page 2
, B. Phase 1 (early repolarization)
C. Phase 2 (plateau)
D. Phase 3 (rapid repolarization)
Answer: C
11. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L and an
arterial blood pH of 7.30. Which of the following best explains the relationship between
hyperkalemia and acidosis in this scenario?
A. Acidosis shifts potassium out of cells via H+/K+ exchange, exacerbating hyperkalemia.
B. Hyperkalemia directly impairs renal ammoniagenesis, worsening metabolic acidosis.
C. Aldosterone deficiency from renal damage reduces both potassium secretion and acid excretion.
D. Increased anion gap from uremic toxins causes both hyperkalemia and acidosis independently.
Answer: C
12. Which of the following best describes the role of the Na+/K+-ATPase in the thick
ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
A. It directly reabsorbs sodium via secondary active transport with potassium and chloride.
B. It establishes the electrochemical gradient that drives the NKCC2 cotransporter.
C. It secretes potassium into the tubular lumen to generate a positive charge.
D. It reabsorbs magnesium and calcium by paracellular diffusion.
Answer: B
13. A researcher measures the clearance of substance X and finds it exceeds the clearance
of inulin. Which of the following must be true about substance X?
A. It is both filtered and secreted.
B. It is neither filtered nor secreted.
C. It is filtered but not reabsorbed.
D. It is reabsorbed but not secreted.
Answer: A
14. Which of the following best explains why the urine concentrating mechanism in the
inner medulla depends on urea recycling?
A. Urea is actively transported into the interstitium by the collecting duct, raising osmolality.
B. Urea diffuses out of the inner medullary collecting duct, contributing to the high interstitial
osmolality.
C. Urea is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule and secreted in the loop, creating a countercurrent
multiplier.
D. Urea is impermeable in the thin descending limb, preventing washout of the gradient.
Answer: B
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