NR667 Week 5 Actual Exam Style V2 | NR
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. Which component of Medicare covers outpatient services, such as provider office visits and
diagnostic tests?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part C
C. Medicare Part B
D. Medicare Part D
Answer: C
Rationale: Medicare Part B is designed to cover medically necessary services and
preventive services. It specifically includes outpatient care, physician services, and durable
medical equipment. Understanding the different parts of Medicare is crucial for FNPs to
ensure patients receive proper coverage for their care.
2. In the legal context of malpractice, which of the following elements must be proven to
establish negligence?
A. Intent to harm and direct injury
B. Lack of insurance and patient dissatisfaction
C. Incorrect diagnosis and patient non-compliance
,D. Duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages
Answer: D
Rationale: To prove negligence in a malpractice case, the plaintiff must demonstrate that a
legal duty existed and that the provider breached that duty. Additionally, there must be a
direct causal link between the breach and the actual damages or injury suffered by the
patient. All four elements are required for a successful legal claim against a healthcare
professional.
3. When billing ‘Incident-to’ in a private practice setting, which condition must be met for the
NP to bill at 100% of the physician rate?
A. The NP must be the one who established the initial plan of care.
B. The physician must be in the same office suite and immediately available.
C. The patient must be a new patient being seen for a new problem.
D. The NP can bill at 100% regardless of the physician’s presence.
Answer: B
Rationale: For ‘Incident-to’ billing, the physician must have established the initial plan of
care for the patient’s specific problem. The physician must also be physically present in the
office suite to provide direct supervision if needed. If these specific Medicare criteria are
not met, the NP must bill under their own NPI at 85% of the rate.
4. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Administering a flu vaccine to an elderly patient.
, B. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction.
C. Performing a screening mammogram on a 50-year-old female.
D. Teaching a diabetic patient about foot care.
Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening of
asymptomatic disease to improve outcomes. Mammograms are a classic example of this
level of prevention as they seek to identify breast cancer in its early stages. In contrast,
primary prevention involves preventing the disease before it occurs, and tertiary
prevention focuses on managing established disease.
5. What does the ICD-10 coding system primarily represent in a clinical setting?
A. Quality of care metrics for reimbursement.
B. Procedure codes for surgical interventions.
C. Level of complexity for evaluation and management.
D. Diagnostic codes for diseases and conditions.
Answer: D
Rationale: ICD-10 codes are the international standard for reporting diagnoses and
medical conditions. These codes are essential for justifying the medical necessity of the
services provided during a patient encounter. Accurate ICD-10 coding is a fundamental skill
for NPs to ensure proper clinical documentation and billing.
667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive CEA | Chamberlain
1. Which component of Medicare covers outpatient services, such as provider office visits and
diagnostic tests?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part C
C. Medicare Part B
D. Medicare Part D
Answer: C
Rationale: Medicare Part B is designed to cover medically necessary services and
preventive services. It specifically includes outpatient care, physician services, and durable
medical equipment. Understanding the different parts of Medicare is crucial for FNPs to
ensure patients receive proper coverage for their care.
2. In the legal context of malpractice, which of the following elements must be proven to
establish negligence?
A. Intent to harm and direct injury
B. Lack of insurance and patient dissatisfaction
C. Incorrect diagnosis and patient non-compliance
,D. Duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages
Answer: D
Rationale: To prove negligence in a malpractice case, the plaintiff must demonstrate that a
legal duty existed and that the provider breached that duty. Additionally, there must be a
direct causal link between the breach and the actual damages or injury suffered by the
patient. All four elements are required for a successful legal claim against a healthcare
professional.
3. When billing ‘Incident-to’ in a private practice setting, which condition must be met for the
NP to bill at 100% of the physician rate?
A. The NP must be the one who established the initial plan of care.
B. The physician must be in the same office suite and immediately available.
C. The patient must be a new patient being seen for a new problem.
D. The NP can bill at 100% regardless of the physician’s presence.
Answer: B
Rationale: For ‘Incident-to’ billing, the physician must have established the initial plan of
care for the patient’s specific problem. The physician must also be physically present in the
office suite to provide direct supervision if needed. If these specific Medicare criteria are
not met, the NP must bill under their own NPI at 85% of the rate.
4. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
A. Administering a flu vaccine to an elderly patient.
, B. Providing cardiac rehabilitation after a myocardial infarction.
C. Performing a screening mammogram on a 50-year-old female.
D. Teaching a diabetic patient about foot care.
Answer: C
Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening of
asymptomatic disease to improve outcomes. Mammograms are a classic example of this
level of prevention as they seek to identify breast cancer in its early stages. In contrast,
primary prevention involves preventing the disease before it occurs, and tertiary
prevention focuses on managing established disease.
5. What does the ICD-10 coding system primarily represent in a clinical setting?
A. Quality of care metrics for reimbursement.
B. Procedure codes for surgical interventions.
C. Level of complexity for evaluation and management.
D. Diagnostic codes for diseases and conditions.
Answer: D
Rationale: ICD-10 codes are the international standard for reporting diagnoses and
medical conditions. These codes are essential for justifying the medical necessity of the
services provided during a patient encounter. Accurate ICD-10 coding is a fundamental skill
for NPs to ensure proper clinical documentation and billing.
